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HI there....welcome To test visual acuity, the nurse should ask the patient to cover each eye separately and read the eye chart with glasses and without, as appropriate. Fundamental of Nursing Before teaching any procedure to the patient, the nurse must first assess the patient’s willingness to learn and his current knowledge. Fundamentals of Nursing A blood pressure cuff that is too narrow can cause a falsely elevated blood pressure reading. Fundamentals of Nursing When preparing a single injection for a patient who takes regular and NPH insulin, the nurse should draw the regular insulin into the syringe first because it is clear and can be measured more accurately than the NPH insulin, which is turbid. Fundamentals of Nursing Rhonchi refers to the rumbling sounds heard on lung auscultation; they are more pronounced during expiration than during inspiration. Fundamentals of Nursing Gavage refers to forced feeding, usually through a gastric tube (a tube passed into the stomach by way of the mouth). Fundamentals of Nursing According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, physiologic needs (air, water, food, shelter, sex, activity, and comfort) have the highest priority. Fundamentals of Nursing Checking the identification band on a patient’s wrist is the safest and surest way to verify a patient’s identity. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient’s safety is the priority concern in developing a therapeutic environment. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should place the patient with a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube in semi-Fowler’s position. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse can elicit Trousseau’s sign by occluding the brachial or radial artery; hand and finger spasms during occlusion indicate Trousseau’s sign and suggest hypocalcemia. Fundamentals of Nursing For blood transfusion in an adult, the appropriate needle size is 16 to 20G. Fundamentals of Nursing Pain that incapacities a patient and can’t be relieved by drugs is called intractable pain. Fundamentals of Nursing In an emergency, consent for treatment can be obtained by fax, telephone, or other telegraphic transmission. Fundamentals of Nursing Decibel is the unit of measurement of sound. Fundamentals of Nursing Informed consent is required for any invasive procedure. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient who can’t write his or her name to give consent for treatment must have his or her X witnessed by two persons, such as a nurse, priest, or doctor. Fundamentals of Nursing The Z-track I.M. injection technique seals medication deep into the muscle, thereby minimizing skin irritation and staining. It requires a needle that is 1’’ (2.5 cm) or longer. Fundamentals of Nursing A registered nurse (RN) should assign a licensed vocational nurse (LVN) or licensed practical nurse (LPN) to perform bedside care, such as suctioning and medication administration. Fundamentals of Nursing The therapeutic purposed of a mist tent is to increase hydration of secretions. Fundamentals of Nursing If a patient can’t void, the first nursing action should be bladder palpation to assess for bladder distention. Fundamentals of Nursing The patient who uses a cane should carry it on the unaffected side and advance it at the same time as the affected extremity. Fundamentals of Nursing To fit a supine patient for crutches, the nurse should measure from the axilla to the sole and add 2” (5 cm) to that measurement. Fundamentals of Nursing Assessment begins with the nurse’s first encounter with the patient and continues throughout the patient’s stay. The nurse obtains assessment data through the health history, physical examination, and review of diagnostic studies. Fundamentals of Nursing The appropriate needle size for an insulin injection is 25G and ⅝" (1.5 cm) long. Fundamentals of Nursing Residual urine refers to urine that remains in the bladder after voiding. The amount of residual urine normally ranges from 50 to 100 ml. Fundamentals of Nursing The five stages of the nursing process are assessment, nursing diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation. Fundamentals of Nursing Planning refers to the stage of the nursing process in which the nurse assigns priorities to nursing diagnoses, defines short-term and long-term goals and expected outcomes, and establishes the nursing care plan. Fundamentals of Nursing Implementation refers to the stage of the nursing process in which the nurse puts the nursing care plan into action, delegates specific nursing interventions to members of the nursing team, and charts patient responses to nursing interventions. Fundamentals of Nursing Evaluation refers to the stage of the nursing process in which the nurse compares objective and subjective data with the outcome criteria and, if needed, modifies the nursing care plan, making the nursing process circular. Fundamentals of Nursing In the event of fire, the nurse should (1) remove the patient, (2) call the fire department, (3) attempt to contain the fire by closing the door, and (4) extinguish the fire, if it can be done safely. Fundamentals of Nursing Before administering any as need pain medication, the nurse should ask the patient to indicate the pain’s location. Fundamentals of Nursing Jehovah’s Witnesses believe that they shouldn’t receive blood components donated by other people. Fundamentals of Nursing When providing oral care for an unconscious patient, the nurse should position the patient on the side to minimize the risk of aspiration. Fundamentals of Nursing During assessment of distance vision, the patient should stand 20’ (6.1 m) from the chart. Fundamentals of Nursing The ideal room temperature for a geriatric patient or one who is extremely ill ranges form 66º to 76º F (18.8º to 24.4º C). Fundamentals of Nursing Normal room humidity ranges from 30% to 60%. Fundamentals of Nursing Hand washing is the single best method of limiting the spread of microorganisms. Hands should be washed for 10 seconds after routine contact with a patient and after gloves are removed. Fundamentals of Nursing To catheterize a female patient, the nurse should place her in the dorsal recumbent position. Fundamentals of Nursing A positive Homan’s sign may indicate thrombophlebitis. Fundamentals of Nursing Electrolytes in a solution are measured in milliequivalents per liter (mEq/L). A milliequivalent equals the number of milligrams per 100 milliliters of a solution. Fundamentals of Nursing Metabolism takes a place in two phases: anabolism (the constructive phase) and catabolism (the destructive phase). Fundamentals of Nursing The basal metabolic rate represents the amount of energy needed to maintain essential body functions. It is measured when the patient is awake and resting, hasn’t eaten for 14 to 18 hours, and is in a comfortable, warm environment. Fundamentals of Nursing Dietary fiber (roughage), which is derived from cellulose, supplies bulk, maintains adequate intestinal motility, and helps establish regular bowel habits. Fundamentals of Nursing Alcohol is metabolized primarily in the liver. Smaller amounts are metabolized by the kidneys and lungs. Fundamentals of Nursing Petechiae refers to tiny, round, purplish red spots that appear on the skin and mucous membranes as a result of intradermal or submucosal hemorrhage. Fundamentals of Nursing Purpura refers to a purple skin discoloration caused by blood extravasation. Fundamentals of Nursing Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (C6PD) deficiency is an inherited metabolic disorder characterized by red blood cells that are deficient in G6PD, a critical enzyme in aerobic glycolysis. Fundamentals of Nursing According to the standard precautions recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the nurse shouldn’t recap needles after use because most needle sticks result from missed needle recapping. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse administers a drug by I.V. push by delivering the dose directly into a vein, I.V. tubing, or catheter with a needle and syringe. Fundamentals of Nursing When changing the ties on a tracheostomy tube, the nurse should leave the old ties in place until the new ones are applied. Fundamentals of Nursing A nurse should have assistance when changing the ties on a tracheostomy tube. Fundamentals of Nursing A filter is always used for blood transfusions. Fundamentals of Nursing A four-point (quad) cane is indicated when a patient needs more stability than a regular cane can provide. Fundamentals of Nursing The patient should carry a cane on the unaffected side to promote a reciprocal gait pattern and distribute weight away from the affected leg. Fundamentals of Nursing A good way to begin a patient interview is to ask “What made you seek medical help?” Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should adhere to standard precautions for blood and body fluids when caring for all patients. Fundamentals of Nursing Potassium (K+) is the most abundant cation in intracellular fluid. Fundamentals of Nursing In the four-point gait (or alternating gait), the patient first moves the right crutch followed by the left foot and then the left crutch followed by the right foot. Fundamentals of Nursing In the three-point gait, the patient moves two crutches and the affected leg simultaneously and then moves the unaffected leg. Fundamentals of Nursing In the two-point gait, the patient moves the right leg and the left crutch simultaneously and then moves the left leg and the right crutch. Fundamentals of Nursing Vitamin B complex, the water-soluble vitamins essential for metabolism, include thiamine (B1), riboflavin (B2), niacin (B3), pyridoxine (B6), and cyanocobalamin (B12). Fundamentals of Nursing When being weighed, an adult patient should be lightly dressed and shoeless. Fundamentals of Nursing Before taking an adult’s oral temperature, the nurse should ensure that the patient hasn’t smoked or consumed hot or cold substances in the past 15 minutes. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse shouldn’t take a rectal temperature on an adult patient if the patient has a cardiac disorder; anal lesions, or bleeding hemorrhoids or has recently undergone rectal surgery. Fundamentals of Nursing In a patient with cardiac problems, rectal temperature measurement may stimulate a vagal response, leading to vasodilation and decreased cardiac output. Fundamentals of Nursing When recording pulse amplitude and rhythm, the nurse should use these descriptive measures: +3 indicates a bounding pulse (readily palpable and forceful); +2, a normal pulse (easily palpable); +1, a thready or weak pulse (difficult to detect); and 0, an absent pulse (not detectable). Fundamentals of Nursing The intraoperative period begins when a patient is transferred to the operating room bed and ends when the patient is admitted to the postanesthesia recovery unit. Fundamentals of Nursing On the morning of surgery, the nurse should ensure that the informed consent form has been signed; that the patient hasn’t taken anything by mouth since midnight, has taken a shower with antimicrobial soap, has had mouth care (without swallowing the water, has removed common jewelry, and has received preoperative medication as prescribed; and that vital signs have taken and recorded. Artificial limbs and other prostheses are usually removed. Fundamentals of Nursing Comfort measures, such as positioning the patient, performing backrubs, and providing a restful environment, may decrease the patient’s need for analgesics or may enhance their effectiveness. Fundamentals of Nursing A drug has three names: its generic name, which is used in official publications; its trade name or brand name (such as Tylenol), which is selected by the drug company; and its chemical name, which describes the drug’s chemical composition. Fundamentals of Nursing The patient should take a liquid iron preparation through a straw to avoid staining the teeth. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use the Z-track method to administer an I.M. injection of iron dextran (Imferon). Fundamentals of Nursing An organism may enter the body through the nose, mouth, rectum, urinary or reproductive tract, or skin. Fundamentals of Nursing In descending order, the levels of consciousness are alertness, lethargy, stupor, light coma, and deep coma. Fundamentals of Nursing To turn a patient by logrolling, the nurse folds the patient’s arms across the chest; extends the patient’s legs and inserts a pillow between them, if indicated; places a draw sheet under the patient; and turns the patient by slowly and gently pulling on the draw sheet. Fundamentals of Nursing The diaphragm of the stethoscope is used to hear high-pitched sounds such as breath sounds. Fundamentals of Nursing A slight blood pressure difference (5 to 10 mm Hg) between right and left arms is normal. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should place the blood pressure cuff 1'' (2.5 cm) above the antecubital fossa. Fundamentals of Nursing When instilling ophthalmic ointments, waste the first bed of ointment and then apply from the inner canthus to the outer canthus; twist the medication tube to detach the ointment. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use a leg cuff to measure blood pressure in an obese patient. Fundamentals of Nursing If the blood pressure cuff is applied too loosely, the reading will be falsely elevated. Fundamentals of Nursing Ptosis refers to eyelid drooping. Fundamentals of Nursing A tilt table is useful for a patient with a spinal cord injury, orthostatic hypotension, or brain damage because it can move the patient gradually from a horizontal to a vertical (upright) position. Fundamentals of Nursing To perform venipuncture with the least injury to the vessel, the nurse should turn the bevel upward when the vessel’s lumen is larger than the needle and turn it downward when the lumen is only slightly larger than the needle. Fundamentals of Nursing To move the patient to the edge of the bed for transfer, follow these steps: (1) Move the patient’s head and shoulders toward the edge of the bed. (2) Move the patient’s feet and legs to the edge of the bed (crescent position). (3) Place both the arms well under the patient’s hips and straighten the back while moving the patient toward the edge of the bed. Fundamentals of Nursing When being measured for crutches, a patient should wear his or her shoes. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should attach a restraint to a part of the bed frame that moves with the head, not to the mattress or side rails. Fundamentals of Nursing The mist in a mist tent should never become so dense that it obscures clear visualization of the patient’s respiratory pattern. Fundamentals of Nursing To administer heparin subcutaneously, the nurse should follow these steps: (1) Clean, but don’t rub, the site with alcohol. (2) Stretch the skin taut or pick up a well-defined skin fold. (3)Hold the shaft of the needle in a dart position. (4)Insert the needle into the skin at a right (90-degree) angle. (5)Firmly depress the plunger; but don’t aspirate. (6)Leave the needle in place for 10 seconds. (7)Withdraw the needle gently at the same angle it was inserted. (8)Apply pressure to the injection site with an alcohol pad. Fundamentals of Nursing For a sigmoidoscopy, the nurse should place the patient in a knee-chest or Sims’ position, depending on the doctor’s preference. Fundamentals of Nursing Maslow’s hierarchy of needs must be met in the following order: physiologic (oxygen, food, water, sex, rest, and comfort) safety and security, love and belonging, self-esteem and recognition, and self-actualization. Fundamentals of Nursing When caring for patient with a nasogastric tube, the nurse should apply a water-soluble lubricant to the nostril to prevent soreness. Fundamentals of Nursing During gastric lavage, a nasogastric tube is inserted, the stomach is flushed, and ingested substances are removed through the tube. Fundamentals of Nursing In documenting drainage on a surgical dressing, the nurse should include the size, color, and consistency of the drainage, for example, “10 mm of brown mucoid drainage noted on dressing.” Fundamentals of Nursing To elicit Babinski’s reflex, the nurse strokes the sole of the patient’s foot with a moderately sharp object, such as thumbnail. Fundamentals of Nursing In a positive Babinski’s reflex, the great toe dorsiflexes and the other toes fan out. Fundamentals of Nursing When assessing a patient for bladder distention, the nurse should check the contour of the lower abdomen for a rounded mass above the symphysis pubis. Fundamentals of Nursing The best way to prevent pressure ulcers is to reposition the bedridden patient at least every 2 hours. Fundamentals of Nursing Antiembolism stockings decompress the superficial blood vessels, thereby reducing the risk of thrombus formation. Fundamentals of Nursing The most convenient veins for venipuncture in a adult patient are the basilic and median cubital veins in the antecubital space. Fundamentals of Nursing From 2 to 3 hours before beginning a tube feeding, the nurse should aspirate the patient’s stomach contents to verify adequate gastric emptying. Fundamentals of Nursing People with type O blood are considered to be universal donors. Fundamentals of Nursing People with type AB blood are considered to be universal recipients. Fundamentals of Nursing Herts (Hz) refers to the unit of measurement of sound frequency. Fundamentals of Nursing Hearing protection is required when the sound intensity exceeds 84 dB; double hearing protection is required if it exceeds 104 dB. Fundamentals of Nursing Prothrombin, a clotting factor, is produced in the liver. Fundamentals of Nursing If a patient is menstruating when a urine sample is collected, the nurse should note this on the laboratory slip. Fundamentals of Nursing During lumbar puncture, the nurse must note the initial intracranial pressure and the cerebrospinal fluid color. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient who can’t cough to provide a sputum sample for culture may require a heated aerosol treatment to facilitate removal of a sample. Fundamentals of Nursing If eye ointment and eyedrops must be instilled in the same eye, the eyedrops should be instilled first. Fundamentals of Nursing When leaving an isolation room, the nurse should remove the gloves before the mask because fewer pathogens are on the mask. Fundamentals of Nursing Skeletal traction is applied to a bone using wire pins or tons. It is the most effective means of traction. Fundamentals of Nursing The total parenteral nutrition solution should be stored in a refrigerator and removed 30 to 60 minutes before use because delivery of a chilled solution can cause pain, hypothermia, venous spasm, and venous constriction. Fundamentals of Nursing Medication isn’t routinely injected I.M. into edematous tissue because it may not be absorbed. Fundamentals of Nursing When caring for a comatose patient, the nurse should explain each action to the patient in a normal voice. Fundamentals of Nursing When cleaning dentures, the sink should be lined with a washcloth. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient should void within 8 hours after surgery. Fundamentals of Nursing An EEG identifies normal and abnormal brain waves. Fundamentals of Nursing Stool samples for ova and parasite tests should be delivered to the laboratory without delay or refrigeration. Fundamentals of Nursing The autonomic nervous system regulates the cardiovascular and respiratory systems. Fundamentals of Nursing When providing tracheostomy care, the nurse should insert the catheter gently into the tracheostomy tube. When withdrawing the catheter, the nurse should apply intermittent suction for no more than 15 seconds and use a slight twisting motion. Fundamentals of Nursing A low-residue diet includes such as foods as roasted chicken, rice, and pasta. Fundamentals of Nursing A rectal tube should not be inserted for longer than 20 minutes; it can irritate the mucosa of the rectum and cause a loss of sphincter control. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient’s bed bath should proceed in this order: face, neck, arms, hands, chest, abdomen, back, legs, perineum. Fundamentals of Nursing When lifting and moving a patient, the nurse should use the upper leg muscles most to prevent injury. Fundamentals of Nursing Patient preparation for cholecystography includes ingestion of a contrast medium and a low-fat evening meal. Fundamentals of Nursing During occupied bed changes, the patient should be covered with a black blanket to promote warmth and prevent exposure. Fundamentals of Nursing Anticipatory grief refers to mourning that occurs for an extended time when one realizes that death is inevitable. Fundamentals of Nursing The following foods can alter stool color: beets (red), cocoa (dark red or brown), licorice (black), spinach (green), and meat protein (dark brown). Fundamentals of Nursing When preparing a patient for a skull X-ray, have the patient remove all jewelry and dentures. Fundamentals of Nursing The fight-or-flight response is a sympathetic nervous system response. Fundamentals of Nursing Bronchovesicular breath sounds in peripheral lung fields are abnormal and suggest pneumonia. Fundamentals of Nursing Wheezing refers to an abnormal, high-pitched breath sound that is accentuated on expiration. Fundamentals of Nursing Wax or a foreign body in the ear should be gently flushed out by irrigation with warm saline solution. Fundamentals of Nursing If a patient complains that his hearing aid is “not working,” the nurse should check the switch first to see if it’s turned on and then check the batteries. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should grade hyperactive biceps and triceps reflexes +4. Fundamentals of Nursing If two eye medications are prescribed for twice-daily instillation, they should be administered 5 minutes apart. Fundamentals of Nursing In a postoperative patient, forcing fluids helps prevent constipation. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse must administer care in accordance with standards of care established by the American Nurses Association, state regulations, and facility policy. Fundamentals of Nursing The kilocalorie (kcal) is a unit of energy measurement that represents the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 kilogram of water 1º C. Fundamentals of Nursing As nutrients move through the body, they undergo ingestion, digestion, absorption, transport, cell metabolism, and excretion. Fundamentals of Nursing The body metabolizes alcohol at a fixed rate regardless of serum concentration. Fundamentals of Nursing In an alcoholic beverage, its proof reflects its percentage of alcohol multiplied by 2. For example, a 100-proof beverage contains 50% alcohol. Fundamentals of Nursing A living will is a witnessed document that states a patient’s desire for certain types of care and treatment, which depends on the patient’s wishes and views and quality of life. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should flush a peripheral heparin lock every 8 hours (if it wasn’t used during the previous 8 hours) and as needed with normal saline solution to maintain patency. Fundamentals of Nursing Quality assurance is a method of determining whether nursing actions and practices meet established standards. Fundamentals of Nursing The five rights of medication administration are the right patient, right medication, right dose, right route of administration, and the right time. Fundamentals of Nursing Outside of the hospital setting, only the sublingual and transligual forms of nitroglycerin should be used to relieve acute anginal attacks. Fundamentals of Nursing The implementation phase of the nursing process involves recording the patient’s response to the nursing plan, putting the nursing plan into action, delegating specific nursing interventions, and coordinating the patient’s activities. Fundamentals of Nursing The Patient’s Bill of Rights offers guidance and protection to patients by stating the responsibilities of the hospital and its staff toward patients and their families during hospitalization. Fundamentals of Nursing To minimize the omissions and distortion of facts, the nurse should record information as soon as it is gathered. Fundamentals of Nursing When assessing a patient’s health history, the nurse should record the current illness chronologically, beginning with the onset of the problem and continuing to the present. Fundamentals of Nursing Drug administration is a dependent activity. The nurse can administer or withhold a drug only with the doctor’s permission. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse shouldn’t give false assurance to a patient. Fundamentals of Nursing After receiving preoperative medication, a patient isn’t competent to sign an informed consent form. Fundamentals of Nursing When lifting a patient, a nurse uses the weight of her body instead of the strength in her arms. Fundamentals of Nursing A nurse may clarify a doctor’s explanation to a patient about an operation or a procedure but must refer questions about informed consent to the doctor. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse shouldn’t use her thumb to take a patient’s pulse rate because the thumb has a pulse of its own and may be confused with the patient’s pulse. Fundamentals of Nursing An inspiration and an expiration count as one respiration. Fundamentals of Nursing Normal respirations are known as eupnea. Fundamentals of Nursing During a blood pressure measurement, the patient should rest the arm against a surface because using muscle strength to hold up the arm may raise the blood pressure. Fundamentals of Nursing Major unalterable risk factors for coronary artery disease include heredity, sex, race, and age. Fundamentals of Nursing Inspection is the most frequently used assessment technique. Fundamentals of Nursing Family members of an elderly person in a long-term care facility should transfer some personal items (such as photographs, a favorite chair, and knickknacks) to the person’s room to provide a homey atmosphere. Fundamentals of Nursing The upper respiratory tract warms and humidifies inspired air and plays a role in taste, smell, and mastication. Fundamentals of Nursing Signs of accessory muscle use include shoulder elevation, intercostal muscle retraction, and scalene and sternocleidosmastoid muscle use during respiration. Fundamentals of Nursing When patients use axillary crutches, their palms should bear the brunt of the weight. Fundamentals of Nursing Activities of daily living include eating, bathing, dressing, grooming, toileting, and interacting socially. Fundamentals of Nursing Normal gait has two phases: the stance phase, in which the patient’s foot rests on the ground, and the swing phase, in which that patient’s foot moves forward. Fundamentals of Nursing The phases of mitosis are prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should follow standard precautions in the routine care of all patients. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use the bell of the stethoscope to listen for venous hums and cardiac murmurs. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse can assess a patient’s general knowledge by asking questions such as “Who is the president for the United States?” Fundamentals of Nursing Cold packs are applied for the first 20 to 48 hours after an injury; then heat is applied. During cold application, the pack is applied for 20 minutes and then removed for 10 to 15 minutes to prevent reflex dilation (rebound phenomenon) and frostbite injury. Fundamentals of Nursing The pons is located above the medulla and consists of white matter (sensory and motor tracts) and gray matter (reflex centers). Fundamentals of Nursing The autonomic nervous system controls the smooth muscles. Fundamentals of Nursing A correctly written patient goal expresses the desired patient behavior, criteria for measurement, time frame for achievement, and conditions under which the behavior will occur. It is developed in collaboration with the patient. Fundamentals of Nursing The optic disk is yellowish pink and circular with a distinct border. Fundamentals of Nursing A primary disability results from a pathologic process; a secondary disability, from inactivity. Nurses usually are held liable for failing to keep an accurate count of sponges and other devices during surgery. Fundamentals of Nursing The best dietary sources of vitamin B6 are liver, kidney, pork, soybeans, corn, and whole-grain cereals. Fundamentals of Nursing Iron-rich foods, such as organ meats, nuts, legumes, dried fruit, leafy vegetables, eggs, and whole gains, generally have low water content. Fundamentals of Nursing Collaboration refers to joint communication and decision making between nurses and doctors designed to meet patients’ needs by integrating the care regimens of both professions in one comprehensive approach. Fundamentals of Nursing Bradycardia refers to a heart rate of fewer than 60 beats/minute. Fundamentals of Nursing A nursing diagnosis is a statement of a patient’s actual or potential health problems that can be resolved, diminished, or otherwise changed by nursing interventions. Fundamentals of Nursing During the assessment phase of the nursing process, the nurse collects and analyzes three types of data: health history, physical examination, and laboratory and diagnostic test data. Fundamentals of Nursing The patient’s health history consists primarily of subjective data, information supplied by patient. Fundamentals of Nursing The physical examination includes objective data obtained by inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation. Fundamentals of Nursing When documenting patient care, the nurse should write legibly, use only standard abbreviations, and sign every entry. The nurse should never destroy or attempt to obliterate documentation or leave vacant lines. Fundamentals of Nursing Factors that affect body temperature include time of day, age, physical activity, phase of menstrual cycle, and pregnancy. Fundamentals of Nursing The most accessible and commonly used artery for measuring a patient’s pulse rate is the radial artery, which is compressed against the radius to take the pulse rate. Fundamentals of Nursing The normal pulse rate of a resting adult is 60 to 100 beats/minute. The rate is slightly faster in women than in men and much faster in children than in adults. Fundamentals of Nursing Laboratory test results are an objective form of assessment data. Fundamentals of Nursing The measurement systems most often used in clinical practice are the metric system, apothecaries’ system, and household system. Fundamentals of Nursing Before signing an informed consent, a patient should know whether other treatment options are available and should understand what will occur during the preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative phase; the risk involved; and the possible complications. The patient also should have a general idea of the time required from surgery to recovery and should have an opportunity to ask questions. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient must sign a separate informed consent form for each procedure. Fundamentals of Nursing During percussion, the nurse uses quick, sharp tapping of the fingers or hands against body surfaces to produce sounds (that helps determine the size, shape, position, and density of underlying organs and tissues), elicit tenderness, or assess reflexes. Fundamentals of Nursing Ballottement is a form of light palpation involving gentle, repetitive bouncing of tissues against the hand and feeling their rebound. Fundamentals of Nursing A foot cradle keeps bed linen off the patient’s feet, which prevent skin irritation and breakdown, especially in a patient with peripheral vascular disease or neuropathy. Fundamentals of Nursing If the patient is a married minor, permission to perform a procedure can be obtained form the patient’s spouse. Fundamentals of Nursing Gastric lavage is the flushing of the stomach and removal of ingested substances through a nasogastric tube. It can be used to treat poisoning or drug overdose. Fundamentals of Nursing During the evaluation step of the nursing process, the nurse assesses the patient’s response to therapy. Fundamentals of Nursing Bruits commonly indicate a life- or limb-threatening vascular disease. Fundamentals of Nursing O.U. means each eye; O.D., right eye; and O.S, left eye. Fundamentals of Nursing To remove a patient’s artificial eye, the nurse depresses the lower lid. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use a warm saline solution to clean an artificial eye. Fundamentals of Nursing A thready pulse is very fine and scarcely perceptible. Fundamentals of Nursing Axillary temperature usually is 1º F lower than oral temperature. Fundamentals of Nursing After suctioning a tracheostomy tube, the nurse must document the color, amount, consistency, and odor of secretions. Fundamentals of Nursing On a medication prescription, the abbreviation p.c. means that the medication should be administered after meals. Fundamentals of Nursing After bladder irrigation, the nurse should document the amount, color, and clarity of the urine and the presence of clots or sediment. Fundamentals of Nursing Laws regarding patient self-determination vary from state to state. Therefore, the nurse must be familiar with the laws of the state in which she works. Fundamentals of Nursing Gauge refers to the inside diameter of a needle. The smaller the gauge, the larger the diameter. Fundamentals of Nursing An adult normally has 32 permanent teeth. Fundamentals of Nursing After turning a patient, the nurse should document the position used, time turned, and skin assessment findings. Fundamentals of Nursing PERRLA is an abbreviation for normal pupil assessment findings: pupils equal, round, and reactive to light with accommodation. Fundamentals of Nursing When purcussing a patient’s chest for postural drainage, the nurse’s hands should be cupped. Fundamentals of Nursing When measuring a patient’s pulse, the nurse should assess the rate, rhythms, quality, and strength. Fundamentals of Nursing Before transferring a patient from a bed to a wheelchair, the nurse should push the wheelchair’s footrests to the sides and lock its wheels. Fundamentals of Nursing When assessing respirations, the nurse should document the rate, rhythm, depth, and quality. Fundamentals of Nursing For a subcutaneous injection, the nurse should use a ⅝" 25G needle. Fundamentals of Nursing The notation “AA & O x 3” indicates that the patient is awake, alert, and oriented to person (knows who he is), place (knows where he is), and time (knows the date and time). Fundamentals of Nursing Fluid intake includes all fluids taken by mouth, including foods that are liquid at room temperature, such as gelatin, custard, and ice cream; I.V. fluids; and fluids administered in feeding tubes. Fluid output includes urine, vomitus, and drainage (such as from a nasogastric tube or from a wound) as well as blood loss, diarrhea or stool, and perspiration. Fundamentals of Nursing After administering an intradermal injection, the nurse shouldn’t massage the area because massage can irritate the site and interfere with results. Fundamentals of Nursing When administering an intradermal injection, the nurse should hold the syringe almost flat against the patient’s skin (at about a 15-degree angle) with the bevel up. Fundamentals of Nursing To obtain an accurate blood pressure, the nurse should inflate the manometer 20 to 30 mm Hg above the disappearance of the radial pulse before releasing the cuff pressure. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should count an irregular pulse for 1 full minute. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient who is vomiting while lying down should be placed in a lateral position to prevent aspiration of vomitus. Fundamentals of Nursing Prophylaxis is disease prevention. Fundamentals of Nursing Body alignment is achieved when the body parts are in proper relation to their natural position. Fundamentals of Nursing Trust is the foundation of a nurse-patient relationship. Fundamentals of Nursing Blood pressure in the force exerted by the circulating volume of blood on arterial walls. Fundamentals of Nursing Malpractice refers to the professional’s wrongful conduct, improper discharge of duties, or failure to meet standers of care, which causes harm to another. Fundamentals of Nursing As a general rule, nurses can’t refuse a patient care assignment; however, they may refuse to participate in abortions in most states. Fundamentals of Nursing A nurse can be found negligent if a patient is injured because the nurse failed to perform a duty that a reasonable and prudent person would perform or because the nurse performed an act that a reasonable and prudent person wouldn’t perform. Fundamentals of Nursing States have enacted Good Samaritan laws to encourage professionals to provide medical assistance at the scene of an accident without fear of a lawsuit arising from such assistance. These laws don’t apply to care provided in a health care facility. Fundamentals of Nursing A doctor should sign verbal and telephone orders within the time established by institutional policy, usually within 24 hours. Fundamentals of Nursing A competent adult has the right to refuse lifesaving medical treatment; however, the individual should be fully informed of the consequences of this refusal. Fundamentals of Nursing Although a patient’s health record or chart is the health care facility’s physical property, its contents belong to the patient. Fundamentals of Nursing Before a patient’s record can be released to a third party, the patient or patient’s legal guardian must give written consent. Fundamentals of Nursing Under the Controlled Substances Act, every dose of a controlled drug dispensed by the pharmacy must be counted for, whether the dose was administered to a particular patient or discarded accidentally. Fundamentals of Nursing A nurse can’t perform duties that violate a rule or regulation established by a state licensing board even if it is authorized by a health care facility or doctor. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should select a private room, preferably with a door that can be closed, to minimize interruptions during a patient interview. Fundamentals of Nursing In categorizing nursing diagnosis, the nurse should address actual life-threatening problems first, followed by potentially life-threatening concerns. Fundamentals of Nursing The major components of a nursing care plan are outcome criteria (patient goals) and nursing interventions. Fundamentals of Nursing Standing orders, or protocols, establish guidelines for treating a particular disease or set of symptoms. Fundamentals of Nursing In assessing a patient’s heart, the nurse normally finds the point of maximal impulse at the fifth intercostals space near the apex. Fundamentals of Nursing The S1 sound heard on auscultation is caused by closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves. Fundamentals of Nursing To maintain package sterility, the nurse should open the wrapper’s top flap away from the body, open side flap by touching only the outer part of the wrapper, and open the final flap by grasping the turned-down corner and pulling it toward the body. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse shouldn’t use a cotton-tipped applicator to dry a patient’s ear canal or remove wax because it may force cerumen against the tympanic membrane. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient’s identification bracelet should remain in place until the patient has been discharged from the health care facility and has left the premises. Fundamentals of Nursing The Controlled Substances Act designated five categories, or schedules, that classify controlled drugs according to their abuse liability. Fundamentals of Nursing Schedule I drugs, such as heroin, have a high abuse potential and have no currently accepted medical use in the United States. Fundamentals of Nursing Schedule II drugs, such as morphine, opium, and meperidine (Demerol), have a high abuse potential but have currently accepted medical uses. Their use may lead to physical or psychological dependence. Fundamentals of Nursing Schedule III drugs, such as paregoric and butabarbital (Butisol), have a lower abuse potential than Schedule I or II drugs. Abuse of Schedule III drugs may lead to moderate or low physical or psychological dependence, or both. Fundamentals of Nursing Schedule IV drugs, such as chloral hydrate, have a low abuse potential compared with Schedule III drugs. Fundamentals of Nursing Schedule V drugs, such as cough syrups that contain codeine, have the lowest abuse potential of the controlled substances. Fundamentals of Nursing Activities of daily living are actions that the patient must perform every day to provide self-care and interact with society. Fundamentals of Nursing Testing of the six cardinal fields of gaze evaluates the function of all extraocular muscles and cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. Fundamentals of Nursing The six types of heart murmurs are graded from 1 to 6. A grade 6 heart murmur can be heard with stethoscope slightly raised from the chest. Fundamentals of Nursing The most important goal to include in a care plan is the patient’s goal. Fundamentals of Nursing Fruits are high in fiber and low in protein and should be omitted from a low-residue diet. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use an objective scale to assess and quantify pain because postoperative pain varies greatly among individuals. Fundamentals of Nursing Postmortem care includes cleaning and preparing the deceased patient for family viewing, arranging transportation to the morgue or funeral home, and determining the disposition of belongings. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should provide honest answers to the patient’s questions. Fundamentals of Nursing Milk shouldn’t be included in a clear liquid diet. Fundamentals of Nursing Consistency in nursing personnel is paramount when caring for a child, and infant, or a confused patient. Fundamentals of Nursing The hypothalamus secretes vasopressin and oxytocin, which are stored in the pituitary gland. Fundamentals of Nursing The three membranes that enclose that brain and spinal cord are the dura mater, pia mater, and arachnoid. Fundamentals of Nursing A nasogastric tube is used to remove fluid and gas from the small intestine preoperatively or postoperatively. Fundamentals of Nursing Psychologists, physical therapists, and chiropractors aren’t authorized to write prescriptions for medication. Fundamentals of Nursing The area around a stoma should be cleaned with mild soap and water. Fundamentals of Nursing Vegetables have a high fiber content. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use a tuberculin syringe to administer an S.C. injection of less than 1 ml. Fundamentals of Nursing For adults, S.C. injections require a 25G 1" needle; for infants, children, elderly, or very thin patients, they require a 25G to 27G ½" needle. Fundamentals of Nursing Before administering medication, the nurse should identify the patient by checking the identification band and asking the patient to state his name. Fundamentals of Nursing To clean the skin before an injection, the nurse should use a sterile alcohol swab and wipe from the center of the site outward in a circular motion. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse always should inject heparin deep into S.C. tissue at a 90-degree angle (perpendicular to the skin) to prevent skin irritation. Fundamentals of Nursing If blood is aspirated into the syringe before an I.M. injection, the nurse should withdraw the needle, prepare another syringe, and repeat the procedure. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse shouldn’t cut the patient’s hair without written consent from the patient or an appropriate relative. Fundamentals of Nursing If bleeding occurs after an injection, the nurse should apply pressure until the bleeding stops; if bruising occurs, the nurse should monitor the site for an enlarging hematoma. Fundamentals of Nursing When providing hair and scalp care, the nurse should begin combing at the end of the hair and work toward the head. Fundamentals of Nursing Frequency of patient hair care depends on the length and texture of the hair, duration of hospitalization, and patient’s condition. Fundamentals of Nursing Proper hearing aid function requires careful handling during insertion and removal, regular cleaning of the ear piece to prevent wax buildup, and prompt replacement of dead batteries. Fundamentals of Nursing The hearing aid marked with a blue dot is for the left ear; the one with the red dot is for the right ear. Fundamentals of Nursing A hearing aid shouldn’t be exposed to heat or humidity and shouldn’t be immersed in water. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should instruct a patient not to use hair spray while wearing a hearing aid. Fundamentals of Nursing The five branches of pharmacology are pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, pharmacotherapeutics, toxicology, and pharmacognosy. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should remove heel protectors every 8 hours to inspect the foot for signs of skin breakdown. Fundamentals of Nursing The purpose of heat application is to promote vasodilation, which reduces pain caused by inflammation. Fundamentals of Nursing A sutured surgical incision is an example of healing by first intention (healing directly, without granulation). Fundamentals of Nursing Healing by secondary intention (healing by granulation) is closure of the wound by the granulation tissue filling the defect and allowing reepithelialization to occur, beginning at the wound edges and continuing to the center, until the entire wound is covered. Fundamentals of Nursing Keloid formation is an abnormality in healing characterized by overgrowth of scar tissue at the wound site. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should administer procaine penicillin by deep I.M. injection in the upper outer portion of the buttocks in the adult or in the midlateral thigh in the child. The nurse shouldn’t massage the injection site. Fundamentals of Nursing The ascending colostomy drains fluid feces; the descending colostomy drains solid fecal matter. Fundamentals of Nursing A folded towel (called a scrotal bridge) can provide scrotal support for the patient with scrotal edema caused by vasectomy, epididymitis, or orchitis. Fundamentals of Nursing When giving an injection to the patient with a bleeding disorder, the nurse should use a small-gauge needle and apply pressure to the site for 5 minutes after the injection. Fundamentals of Nursing Platelets are the smallest and most fragile formed element of the blood and are essential for coagulation. Fundamentals of Nursing To insert a nasogastric tube, the nurse should first instruct the patient to tilt the head back slightly and then insert the tube. When the tube is felt curving at the pharynx, the nurse should tell the patient to tilt the head forward to close the trachea and open the esophagus by swallowing. (Sips of water can facilitate this action.) Fundamentals of Nursing According to families whose loved ones are in intensive care units, their four most important needs are to have questions answered honestly, to be assured that the best possible car is being provided, to know the prognosis, and to feel there is hope. Fundamentals of Nursing A double-bind communication when the verbal message contradicts the nonverbal message and the receiver is unsure of which message to respond to. Fundamentals of Nursing A nonjudgmental attitude displayed by the nurse demonstrates that she neither approves nor disapproves of the patient. Fundamentals of Nursing Target symptoms are those that the patient and others find most distressing. Fundamentals of Nursing Advise the patient to take aspirin on an empty stomach with a full glass of water and to avoid foods with acid such as coffee, citrus fruits, and cola. Fundamentals of Nursing For every patient problem, there is a nursing diagnosis; for every nursing diagnosis, there is a goal; and for every goal, there are interventions designed to make the goal a reality. The keys to answering examination questions correctly are identifying the problem presented, formulating a goal for that specific problem, and then selecting the intervention from the choices provided that will enable the patient to reach that goal. Fundamentals of Nursing Fidelity means loyalty and can be shown as a commitment to the profession of nursing and to the patient. Fundamentals of Nursing Giving an I.M. injection against the patient’s will and without legal authority is battery. Fundamentals of Nursing An example of a third-party payor is an insurance company. Fundamentals of Nursing On-call medication should be given within 5 minutes of receipt of the call. Fundamentals of Nursing Generally, the best method to determine the cultural or spiritual needs of the patient is to ask him. Fundamentals of Nursing An incident report shouldn’t be made part of the patient’s record but is an in-house document for the purpose of correcting the problem. Fundamentals of Nursing Critical pathways are a multidisciplinary guideline for patient care. Fundamentals of Nursing When prioritizing nursing diagnoses, use this hierarchy: (1) problems associated with airway, (2) those concerning breathing, and (3) those related to circulation. Fundamentals of Nursing The two nursing diagnoses with the highest priority that the nurse can assign are Ineffective airway clearance and Ineffective breathing pattern. Fundamentals of Nursing A subjective sign that a sitz bath has been effective is that patient expresses a decrease in pain or discomfort. Fundamentals of Nursing For the nursing diagnosis Diversional activity deficit to be valid, the patient must make the statement that he’s “bored, there is nothing to do” or words to that effect. Fundamentals of Nursing The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for an individual who doesn’t speak English is Communication, impaired, related to inability to speak dominant language (English). Fundamentals of Nursing The family of the patient who has been diagnosed as hearing impaired should be instructed to face the individual when they speak to him. Fundamentals of Nursing Up to age 3, the pinna should be pulled down and back to straighten the eustachian tube before instilling medication. Fundamentals of Nursing When administering eyedrops, the nurse should waste the first drop and instill the medication in the lower conjunctival sac to prevent injury to the cornea. Fundamentals of Nursing When administering eye ointment, the nurse should waste the first bead of medication and then apply the medication from the inner to the outer canthus. Fundamentals of Nursing When removing gloves and mask, the gloves, which most likely contain pathogens and are soiled, should be removed first. Fundamentals of Nursing Crutches should placed 6" (15 cm) in front of the patient and 6" to the side to assume a tripod position. Fundamentals of Nursing Listening is the most effective communication technique. Fundamentals of Nursing Process recording is a method of evaluating one’s communication effectiveness. Fundamentals of Nursing When feeding the elderly, limit high-carbohydrate foods because of the risk of glucose intolerance. Fundamentals of Nursing Passive range of motion maintains joint mobility whereas resistive exercises increase muscle mass. Fundamentals of Nursing Isometric exercises are performed on an extremity in a cast. Fundamentals of Nursing A back rub is an example of the gate-control theory of pain. Fundamentals of Nursing Anything below the waist is considered unsterile, a sterile field becomes unsterile when it comes in contact with nay unsterile item, a sterile field must be continuously monitored, and the 1" (2.5 cm) border around a sterile field is considered unsterile. Fundamentals of Nursing A “shift to the left” is evident when there is an increase in immature cells (bands) in the blood to fight an infection. Fundamentals of Nursing A “shift to the right” is evident when there is an increase in mature cells in the blood as seen in advanced liver diseases and pernicious anemia. Fundamentals of Nursing Before administering preoperative medication, make sure that an informed consent form has been signed and attached to the patient’s record. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should spend no more than 30 minutes per 8-hour shift in providing care to the patient with a radiation implant. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should stand near the patient’s shoulders for cervical implants and at the foot of the bed for head and neck implants. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should never be assigned to care for more than one patient with radiation implants. Fundamentals of Nursing Long-handled forceps and a lead-lined container should be in the room of the patient who has a radiation implant. Fundamentals of Nursing Generally, patients who have the same infection and are in strict isolation can share the same room. Fundamentals of Nursing Diseases requiring strict isolation include chickenpox, diphtheria, and viral hemorrhagic fever such as Marburg virus disease. Fundamentals of Nursing For the patient abiding by Jewish custom, milk and meat shouldn’t be served in the same meal. Fundamentals of Nursing Whether the patient can perform a procedure (psychomotor domain of learning) is a better indicator of the effectiveness of patient teaching than whether the patient can simply state the steps of the procedure (cognitive domain of learning). Fundamentals of Nursing Developmental stages according to Erik Erikson are trust versus mistrust (birth to 18 months), autonomy versus shame and doubt (18 months to 3 years), initiative versus guilt (3 to 5 years), industry versus inferiority (5 to 12 years), identity versus identity diffusion (12 to 18 years), intimacy versus isolation (18 to 25 years), generativity versus stagnation (25 to 60 years), and ego integrity versus despair (older than 60 years). Fundamentals of Nursing Face the hearing impaired patient when communicating with him. Fundamentals of Nursing A proper nursing intervention for the spouse of the patient who has suffered a serious incapacitating disease is to assist him in mobilizing a support system. Fundamentals of Nursing Hyperpyrexia refers to extreme elevation in temperature above 106º F (41.1º C). Fundamentals of Nursing

Fundamentals of Nursing Drill 7

SITUATION: the client 65 y/o has been experiencing cramping pain in her lower abdomen and has noticed a gradual change in her elimination pattern. She is admitted to the hospital for a diagnostic workup and probable surgery

1.) The client is scheduled for barium enema. Preparation includes administration of 60ml of castor oil orally. Castor oil facilitates cleansing of the bowel primarily by:

A.) softening of feces
B.) Lubricating the stool
C.) Increasing the volume of intestinal content
D.) Irritating the nerve endings in the intestinal mucosa

2.) Following barium enema, the nurse should be prepared to administer which type of medication?

A.) Laxative
B.) Antiemetic
C.) Antacid
D.) antibiotic

3.) The diagnosis of cancer is confirmed. The client is scheduled for permanent colostomy. The preferred site would be:

A.) Ascending colon
B.) Lower portion of the descending colon
C.) Middle portion of the transverse colon
D.) Ileum

4.) The patient had NGT inserted at the time of surgery. The tube will most likely be removed when the client demonstrates

A.) Absence of bowel sounds
B.) Passage of mucus from the rectum
C.) Passage of flatus and feces from the colostomy
D.) Absence of gastric drainage for about 24hours

5.) A colostomy irrigation is ordered on the 5th postop day. The primary purpose of this first irrigation is to:

A.) Cleanse the colon
B.) Regulate the bowel
C.) Dilate the sphincter
D.) Stimulate peristalsis

6.) Which of the following preparations would be best to apply around the colostomy?

A.) Karaya
B.) Petroleum
C.) Cornstarch
D.) Antiseptic cream

SITUATION: Mr. H. Sy, 51 y/o is admitted with a diagnosis of end-stage, irreversible chronic renal failure. He has been scheduled for hemodialysis. He has an A-V fistula created in his left forearm.

7.) Mr. Sy, is being given aluminum hydroxide gel (Amphogel) 40 ml. after meals and at bedtime. The primary purpose of prescribing this medication is to:

A.) Relieve gastric irritation
B.) Prevent metabolic acidosis
C.) Prevent peptic ulcer formation
D.) Phosphate levels lower serum

8.) The nursing care plan states to observe for hyperkalemia. The nurse should recognize that the greatest risk of hyperkalemia is:

A.) Tetany
B.) Cardiac arrest
C.) Fluid overload
D.) Internal bleeding

9.) The physician orders sodium polysterene sulfonate 15g (exchange resin kayexalate) four times a day. The expected outcome of this medication is to:

A.) Lower serum potassium
B.) Lower BP
C.) Increase urinary output
D.) Prevent hemorrhage

10.) The physician orders regular insulin, 10 U added to 50 ml of 50% dextrose to be given intravenously. The expected outcome is to:

A.) Lower the blood sugar
B.) Decrease the serum potassium
C.) Reduce cerebral edema
D.) Prevent tetany

11.) While caring for Mr. Sy who is now having hemodialysis via A-V shunt, the nurse should recognize that:

A.) The use of stethoscope to auscultate the fistula is contraindicated
B.) The client feels best immediately after the hemodialysis
C.) Taking BP on the affected arm can cause clotting
D.) No pain should be experienced during initiation of the dialysis


12.) Following hemodialysis, the nurse should anticipate

A.) weight loss
B.) Polyuria
C.) Increased BP
D.) Glycosuria

13.) After hemodialysis, the expected outcome is decreased serum

A.) Bicarbonate
B.) Creatinine
C.) Proteins
D.) Glucose

14.) The nurse observe symptoms of disequilibrium syndrome which includes

A.) Headache, confusion, and seizure
B.) Ankle edema, rales, weight gain
C.) Fever, joint pain and chills
D.) Decreased BP, tachycardia and chest pain

15.) Which of the following blood values will not be improved by hemodialysis?

A.) Elevated serum creatinine
B.) Hyperkalemia
C.) Low hemoglobin
D.) Hypernatremia

16.) Signs and symptoms of ECF volume excess include the following EXCEPT:

A.) Weight gain
B.) Tight, smooth shiny skin
C.) Puffy eyelids
D.) Flushed, dry skin

17.) The following are manifestations of dehydration EXCEPT:

A.) Thirst
B.) Diluted urine and polyuria
C.) Weight loss
D.) Poor skin turgor

Situation: Mike’s history was taken upon admission. Impression is peptic ulcer disease (P.U.D.)

18.) Mike was prescribed antacids. The rationale for prescribing antacids to Mike is to:

A.) Decrease gastric motility
B.) Neutralize gastric acid
C.) Aid in the digestion process
D.) Prevent constipation

19.) The nurse recognizes that the diet best indicated and must be prescribed for Mike is:

A.) Bland diet
B.) Full Diet
C.) Sippy diet
D.) Karrel’s diet

SITUATION: Mr. M is a 35 y/o bus driver. Accidentally, he sustained second and third degree burns of the chest, anterior portion of both arms and anterior and posterior portions of his right leg.

20.) At the scene of the accident, the burning process may be stopped by:

A.) Immersing the burned parts in cold water
B.) Applying oil to the burned parts
C.) Flushing the burned areas with a weak solution of vinegar
D.) Covering the burned areas with dry, sterile dressings

21.) Based on the rule of 9’s, which percentage is the best estimate of the extent of the client’s burns?

A.) 36
B.) 27
C.) 26
D.) 46

22.) Deep partial thickness burns (2nd degree) involves the:

A.) Epidermis only
B.) Entire epidermis and the dermis
C.) Epidermis, dermis and the muscle
D.) Epidermis, dermis, muscle and the bones

23.) Visual inspection of full-thickness burns would reveal

A.) Dry skin surface with a pearly white or charred appearance
B.) Blisters of varying sizes, with a cherry red base
C.) Moist skin surface with a mottled, reddened area
D.) A swollen, reddened area that blanches when pressure is applied

24.) What is the priority of care in the emergency room during the initial management of the burn client?

A.) Obtaining a medical history
B.) Caring for the burn wound
C.) Providing for fluid resuscitation
D.) Administration of tetanus antitoxin as ordered

25.) During the first 24 hours post-burn, there is a fluid shift from the intravascular compartment to the site of burns. The nurse anticipates the following observations EXCEPT:

A.) Decreased urine output
B.) Increased serum potassium
C.) Decreased hematocrit
D.) Decreased serum sodium

26.) The M.D. orders hourly CVP readings. The serial CVP readings are as follows: 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, cm of water. The nurse recognizes this as:

A.) As indication to increase the flow rate of the IV fluid
B.) A sign of fluid overload
C.) The desired response to the fluid therapy
D.) An indication of the need to decrease the flow rate of the IV therapy

27.) The physicians prescribes Cimetidine (Tagamet) 400 mg every 6 hours per IV. The primary action of this drug is to prevent:

A.) Vomiting
B.) Esophageal Varices
C.) Paralytic Ileus
D.) Duodenal ulcers

28.) The physician has ordered reverse isolation for Mr. M the nurse should understand that:

A.) It is necessary to use sterile linens if the linens are properly washed
B.) Sterile gowns, masks and gloves must be worn while caring for the client
C.) Only some persons coming in contact with the patients need to wear marks and gloves
D.) It is not necessarily to wear mask while administering medication

29.) Mr. M becomes confused and restless. His CVP reading is 17 cm water, weight gain of 5 lbs and urine output of 100ml/hr. The nurse should recognize this as a signs of:

A.) Hypovolemia
B.) Circulatory overload
C.) The diuretic stage
D.) Septic Shock

30.) During the diuretic phase of burns, fluid shifts from the interstitial compartment to the intravascular. There is increase urinary output. The ff changes occur during this stage:

A.) Hypernatremia, hypokalemia, bicarbonate excess
B.) Hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, carbonic acid deficits

C.) Hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, carbonic acid excess
D.) Hyponatremia, hypokalemia, bicarbonate deficit

31.) The physician has ordered Mefenide Acetate (Sulfamylon) for the burn site every 12 hours. The nurse should recognize that:

A.) There is a great deal of pain associated with the application
B.) A thick layer of the preparation should e applied for maximum effect
C.) Cover the application with pressure dressing for better effect
D.) It is not necessary to use sterile technique during application of the preparation because it is antimicrobial

Situation: A female client, 60 y/o, is admitted through the emergency department with crushing substernal chest pain that radiates to her shoulder, jaw and left arm. The admission diagnosis is acute MI. The client is extremely restless and frightened

32.) The pain associated with MI is due to:

A.) An overload left ventricle
B.) Impending circulatory collapse
C.) Imbalances in extracellular electrolytes
D.) Insufficient oxygen reaching the heart muscle

33.) Which of the following hematological studies is typical finding of MI?

A.) Elevated CPK value
B.) Elevated cholesterol level
C.) A below normal WBC count
D.) A below normal ESR

34.) If the client has 8 PVC’s per minute, the nurse’s first course of action should be to:
A.) Increase the rate of IV infusion
B.) Notify the physician promptly
C.) Increase the concentration of oxygen therapy
D.) Administer an analgesic prescribed for the client

35.) One change in the ECG that indicates MI is:

A.) Inverted T wave
B.) Prolonged PR interval
C.) Narrowing of the QRS complex
D.) Absence of P wave

36.) If the client develops cardiogenic shock, which characteristic sign of the condition should the nurse expect to observe?

A.) Pulmonary rales
B.) A slow pulse rate
C.) Sudden onset of fever
D.) A low blood pressure

37.) After one attack of pain, the client says to the nurse “husband died of heart attack and I suppose I will too” Which of the ff would be the most response for the nurse to make.

A.) “Are you thinking that you won’t recover from this illness?”
B.) “You have a fine doctor. Everything will be alright”
C.) “Tell me more about what you are feeling”
D.) “Would you agree that this would be very unlikely?”

38.) Which of the following orders should appear on the client’s NCP to help prevent Valsalva maneuver?

A.) Have the client take fewer but deep breathes
B.) Have the client clench her teeth while moving in
C.) Have the client avoid holding her breath during activities
D.) Have the client take oral fluids through a straw

39.) Oral furosemide (Lasix) is prescribed for the client. Which of the ff signs and symptoms indicates the need for this medication?

A.) The client is anxious
B.) The client is restless
C.) The client has anterior chest pain
D.) The client has rales in the lower lobes of the lungs

Situation: Miss L, an acutely ill 17 y/o is admitted to the hospital with the chief complaint of upper respiratory infection. She is pale and weak. She has been diagnosed to have leukemia when she was 15.

40.) Which of the following statements best describes leukemia?

A.) A disease is infectious in nature and characterized by increased WBC production
B.) The disease is neoplastic in nature and characterized by a proliferation of immature white blood cells
C.) The disease is inflammatory in nature and characterized by solid tumor formation in the lymph nodes
D.) The disease is allergic in nature and characterized by an increased number of circulating antibodies in the bloodstream

41.) Laboratory findings of the client shows that she is anemic, which has most probably resulted from blood loss and

A.) An inadequate intake of iron in the diet
B.) An increase in destruction of RBC by lymphocytes
C.) A progressive replacement of the bone marrow with scar tissue
D.) A decrease in the production of RBC

42.) The nurse notes that the client has petechiae, her gums, lips and nose bleed easily, and that there are bruises on various parts of his body. Which of the following laboratory findings would be typical when theses symptoms appear?
A.) Low platelet count
B.) Low serum calcium level
C.) Faulty thrombin production
D.) Insufficient fibrinogen concentration

43.) Which of the following measures should be kept at a minimum, when possible because the client is prone to bruises and bleed easily?
A.) Giving her stool softener
B.) Changing her position in bed
C.) Offering her food at frequent intervals
D.) Administering drugs to her intramuscularly

44.) Which of the following measure would be contraindicated when the nurse gives the client oral hygiene?

A.) Applying petroleum jelly to the lips
B.) Cleaning the teeth with hard-bristled toothbrush
C.) Swabbing the mouth with moistened cotton swabs
D.) Rinsing the mouth with a non-irritating mouth wash

45.) The nurse should question the order if the drug prescribed for Miss L. T o help control discomfort is:

A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B.) Acetylsalicylic (Aspirin)
C.) Paracetamol (Biogesic)
D.) Acetophenetidin (Phenacetin)

46.) Miss L is scheduled for bone marrow aspiration. Over which of the following bone sites should the nurse prepare the client’s skin for entry of the needle?
A.) The radius
B.) A sternum
C.) A cervical vertebra
D.) The posterior iliac crest

47.) The following are nursing consideration when administering oral iron preparation EXCEPT:
A.) Use straw when taking liquid iron preparation
B.) Take the medication with orange juice
C.) Inform that stool may become black and tarry
D.) Take the medication before meals for better absorption



Situation: Mr. G, is a 45 y/o man, who has been diagnosed to have acute renal failure

48.) Mr. G has been prescribed low protein, potassium, and sodium diet. A touching program should include:

A.) Encourage to include raw fruits and vegetables in the diet
B.) Inform that eggs, poultry and lean meat may be included in the diet
C.) Point out that raw fruits such as bananas, watermelon and oranges have low potassium content
D.) Dried fish may be allowed in the diet

49.) During the first peritoneal dialysis exchange, the fluid that drains from the outflow tubing is tinged with blood. The nurse should:

A.) Check the urine output for hematuria
B.) Apply a pressure dressing to the insertion site
C.) Recognize that the abdominal blood vessels have been inadvertently punctured
D.) Realize that this is an expected occurrence for the first few exchange

50.) To prevent abdominal cramps during peritoneal dialysis, the nurse should:

A.) Instruct the client to lie flat during the entire exchange cycle
B.) Infuse the dialyzing solution at a slow rate
C.) Warm the dialysate solution to body temperature
D.) Drain the solution as soon as the inflow period is completed

51.) To promote drainage of fluid during the outflow period, the nurse should

A.) Keep the head of the bed flat
B.) Attach the outflow tubing to low suction
C.) Move the outflow tubing an inch in or out
D.) Turn the client from side to side

Situation: After a serious automobile accident, a male client age 36 is transported by ambulance to the emergency room. He complains of severe pain in his right chest where he struck the steering wheel. He also experienced multiple lacerations and contusions

52.) The primary nursing goal at this point should be to:

A.) Reduce anxiety
B.) Maintain effective respirations
C.) Decrease chest pain
D.) Maintain adequate circulating volume

53.) Which of the following findings would confirm the presence of pneumothorax?

A.) Pronounced rales
B.) Inspiratory wheezes
C.) Dullness to percussion
D.) Absence of breath sounds

54.) The nurse administers oxygen to the client by nasal cannula at 3L/min. What percentage of oxygen is the patient receiving?

A.) %% to 10%
B.) 15% to 20%
C.) 30% to 35%
D.) 50% to 60%

55.) A chest tube has been inserted, and has been removed on the 6th post op day. The chest tube is best removed

A.) at the end of inhalation or during exhalation and do valsalva maneuver
B.) During inhalation
C.) As the patient do keep breathing exercises
D.) Anytime

56.) Which of the following items should the nurse have ready to be placed directly over the wound when the chest tube is removed?

A.) A butterfly dressing
B.) A petrolatum gauze dressing
C.) A scultetus binder
D.) A 4x4 sterile gauze moistened with NSS

57.) The best position for the client undergoing thoracentesis is to maintain very still in

A.) Lateral Position
B.) Supine position
C.) Sitting position and bending over an overbed table
D.) Prone position

58.) Nursing care during thoracentesis include the ff. EXCEPT:

A.) Observe for the rate, character of pulse and respiration, color and general appearance during the procedure
B.) Encourage the patient to cough and deep breathe after the needle is inserted
C.) Place the patient on the unaffected side for one hour after the procedure
D.) Monitor VS after the procedure to detect hemorrhage and impending shock

59.) Health teachings to a client with bronchial asthma include the following EXCEPT:

A.) Avoid emotional stress, extremes of temperature
B.) Avoid personal pollution such as smoking
C.) Avoid dust, pollens, and animal danders
D.) Practice respiratory isolation
60.) A patient as diagnosed to have laryngeal CA. which of the following is viewed as the primary predisposing factors?

A.) Cigarette smoking
B.) Excessive alcohol
C.) Voice strain
D.) Environmental pollutants

61.) An early manifestation of laryngeal CA is

A.) Weight loss
B.) Dysphagia
C.) Hoarseness of voice
D.) Lump in the neck

62.) The patient had laryngectomy. The following are expected after the surgery EXCEPT:

A.) A tracheostomy in place
B.) Constipation
C.) Loss of sense of smell
D.) An Endotracheal tube in place

63.) A client has pleural effusion. Percussion sound would most likely be:

A.) Dull
B.) Flat
C.) Tympanic
D.) Resonant

64.) Risk factors that may produce pulmonary emboli and deep vein thrombosis include the ff EXCEPT:

A.) Immobility
B.) Obesity
C.) Pelvic surgeries, orthopedic surgeries of lower
D.) Early ambulation post op

65.) In chest injury, cautious and judicious administration of analgesic is indicated to prevent respiratory depression. Which of the ff drug may be given in small doses?

A.) Pancuronium Hydrobromide (Pavulcon)
B.) Morphine Sulfate
C.) Succinylcholine (Anectine)
D.) Meperidine HCL ( Demerol)



66.) Nursing interventions to a client with bronchogenic CA include the ff EXCEPT:

A.) Administration of oxygen inhalation therapy as ordered
B.) performing chest percussion and vibration
C.) Administration of medimist inhalation therapy as ordered
D.) Promotion of physical comfort and physiological support

67.) The following are nursing responsibilities when caring for a patient with tracheostomy tube:

A.) Apply suction for no longer than 10-15 seconds
B.) Instill 5 mls of sterile NSS to the tracheostomy tube to liquefy mucous secretions as needed
C.) use clean technique when suctioning tracheostomy tube
D.) Insert 3-5 inches length of suction catheter

68.) The following are nursing responsibilities to a patient who had undergone tonsillectomy EXCEPT:

A.) Place in lateral position with the head down until fully awake
B.) Observe for frequent swallowing
C.) Instruct to avoid clearing the throat, coughing
D.) Allow to drink fluids through a straw

69.) The first aid treatment of epistaxis includes which of the following?

A.) Exerting pressure at the soft tissues of the nose
B.) Tilting the head back
C.) Inserting cotton swabs into nares
D.) Applying hot compress over the nose

70.) A client is scheduled for a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) tomorrow. During outpatient preop teaching, he asks where his incision will be. What is the most appropriate response?

A.) “The incision is made in the abdomen”
B.) “The incision is made in the lower abdomen”
C.) “The incision is made in the perineum between the scrotum and the rectum”
D.) “There is no incision. The Doctor inserts an instrument through the urethra, the opening in the penis

71.) When a client after prostectomy returns from the recovery room he has an IV infusing at 100ml/hr., a three Foley catheter in place, and continuous bladder irrigation. What would the nurse do first when increase blood in the urine is detected?

A.) Increase the speed of the irrigation
B.) Release the traction on the Foley
C.) Irrigate the catheter manually
D.) Notify the physician

72.) A client who had a TURP complains of pain and bladder spasms. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate after determining that the drainage system is patent?

A.) Administer narcotics plus anticholinergic drugs, as ordered
B.) Help him to sitz bath
C.) Decrease the speed of the irrigation
D.) Decrease the traction on the Foley

73.) Which of the following would be included in the discharge teaching for a prostectomy client?

A.) “Avoid straining at stools”
B.) “Avoid heavy lifting for approximately one week after surgery”
C.) “Drive your care whenever you are ready to do so”
D.) “Refrain from sexual intercourse for 12 weeks”

74.) Which of the following statements indicates that a prostectomy client understand his discharge instruction?

A.) “I know my urine maybe slightly pink-tinged”
B.) “I know my urine should be clear all the time”
C.) “I know my urine should be clear most of the time
D.) “I’ll let my doctor knows if I have any urinary dribbling, retention or bleeding”

75.) Which of the following is a common early symptom of prostate hypertrophy?

A.) Difficulty urinating
B.) Impotence
C.) Urinary Infection
D.) Hematuria

76.) The physician wants to examine a client’s prostate gland. What equipment will be necessary for the exam?

A.) A Foley catheter
B.) Lubricant and gloves
C.) Urethral dilators
D.) A rectal tube

77.) A client undergoes TURP under spinal anesthesia. He returns to his room with continuous bladder irrigation (CBI). Which of these statements best explains the reason for the CBI?

A.) To decrease bladder atony
B.) To remove blood clots from the bladder
C.) To maintain patency of the urethral catheter
D.) To dilute the concentrated urine

78.) Which of the following symptoms can be expected temporarily when a client’s Foley catheter is removed?

A.) Urgency
B.) Dribbling
C.) Urinary retention
D.) Decreased urinary output

79.) Which of the following is the most common complication following a prostectomy that has implications for nursing assessment and intervention?

A.) Urinary tract infection
B.) Cardiac Arrest
C.) Pneumonia
D.) Thrombophlebitis

80.) Which of the following is the most appropriate when preparing a client for a proctosigmoidoscopy?

A.) On the morning of the examination administer enemas until the returns are clear
B.) Maintain the client NPO for 24 hours preceding the examination
C.) Give a strong cathartic on both the evening before and the morning of the examination
D.) Give sitz bath three times daily for 3 days preceding the examination

81.) What position is best for a client during a proctoscopic examination?

A.) Prone
B.) Right Sims
C.) Lithotomy
D.) Knee chest

82.) Which nursing response is the most appropriate when preparing a client for a proctosigmoidoscopy?

A.) “You need have no anxiety concerning this procedure. You will exercise no pain or discomfort”
B.) “You will experience a feeling of pressure and the desire to move your bowels during the brief time that the scope is in place”
C.) “You can reduce your discomfort during the procedure to a minimum by bearing down as the prostoscope is introduced”
D.) “You will experience no discomfort during the procedure, because a topical anesthetic will be applied to the anus”

83.) Which of the following is most characteristic of the stools in ulcerative colitis?

A.) Diarrhea
B.) Clay-colored with blood and mucus

C.) Gray and foamy
D.) Semisolid, green with blood and mucus

84.) A colectomy and ileostomy are proposed for a client. This surgery involves which of the following?

A.) Removal of the rectum with a portion of the colon brought through the abdominal wall
B.) Removal of the colon with a portion of the ileum brought through the abdominal wall
C.) Removal of the ileum with portion of the colon brought through the abdominal wall
D.) A “pull-through” procedure

85.) Which of the following is not anticipated after an ileostomy?

A.) Weight gain
B.) Liquid stool
C.) Reestablishment of a regular bowel pattern
D.) Irritation of the skin around the stoma

86.) Skin care around a stoma is critical. In colostomy skin care, which of the following is contraindicated?

A.) Observe for any excoriated areas
B.) Use karaya paste and rings around the stoma
C.) Apply mineral oil to the area for moisture
D.) Clean the area daily with soap and water before applying the bag

87.) Regulation of a colostomy will be most enhanced if the client

A.) Eats balanced meals at regular intervals
B.) Irrigates after lunch each day
C.) Restricts exercise to walking only
D.) Eats fruit all three meals

88.) When helping a client to accept his colostomy, which of the following actions is inappropriate?

A.) Encourage him to look at the stoma
B.) Emphasize his positive attributes
C.) Involve the family in his care
D.) Have him do his own irrigation

89.) A gastric suction tube was inserted before a client was sent to surgery, in order to:

A.) Facilitate administration of high caloric, nutritious liquids immediately after completion of the procedure
B.) Prevent accumulation of gas and fluid in the stomach both during and following surgical action

C.) Provide a reliable means of detecting gastrointestinal hemorrhage during the operative procedure
D.) Serve as s stimulus to restore normal peristaltic movement following recovery from anesthesia

90.) The symptoms of colon cancer vary depending on where in the colon lesion is located. Which would not be a classic symptom of colon cancer?

A.) Change in bowel habits
B.) Excessive flatus
C.) pain on the right upper quadrant of the abdomen
D.) Anorexia and nausea

91.) Which of the following diagnostic tests will confirm the diagnosis of colon cancer most conclusively?

A.) Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
B.) Barium Enema
C.) Biopsy of the lesion
D.) Stool examination

92.) A 30 y/o homemaker fell asleep while smoking a cigarette. She sustained severe burns of the face, head and neck, anterior chest and both arms and hands. Using the “rule of nine” which of the following is the best estimate of total body surface area burned?

A.)18%
B.) 22%
C.) 36%
D.) 40%

93.) Which of the following would be characteristic of a fresh, second degree burn?

A.) Absence of pain and pressure sense
B.) White or dark, dry, leathery appearance
C.) Large, thick blisters
D.) Visible, thrombosed small vessels

94.)with the location of burns over the upper torso, what is the nurse’s primary concern?

A.) Debride and dress the wounds
B.) Initiate and administer antibiotics
C.) Frequently observe for hoarseness, stridor and dyspnea
D.) Obtain a thorough history of events leading to the accident




95.) A narcotic IV was ordered to control the pain of a client with burns. Why was the IV route selected?

A.) Burns cause excruciating pain, requiring immediate relief
B.) Circulatory blood volume is reduced, delaying absorption from subcutaneous and muscle tissue
C.) Cardiac function is enhanced by immediate action of the drug
D.) Metabolism of the drug would be delayed because of decreased insulin production

96.) A major goal for the client during the first 28 hours after severe burns is to prevent hypovolemic shock. Which of the following would not be a useful monitor of fluid restitution during this period?

A.) Elevated hematocrit
B.) Urine output of 30 ml/hr
C.) Change in sensorium
D.) Estimate of fluid loss through the burn eschar

97.) Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) is applied to a burned client’s wound every 12 hours, the nurse’s assessment would include observation for which of the following side effects of this drug?

A.) Metabolic acidosis
B.) Discoloration of the skin
C.) Laceration of the skin
D.) Dehydration and electrolytes loss

98.) Contractures are among the most serious of the long-term complications of a burn. Because of the burn location on the upper torso, which of the following measures would most likely cause a client to have contractures?

A.) Change the location of the bed or the TV set, or both, daily
B.) Encourage the client to chew gum and blow up balloons
C.) Avoid using a pillow or place the head in a portion of hyperextension
D.) Allow the client to assume a position of comfort

99.) What is the primary aim of all burn-wound care?

A.) To debride the wound of dead tissue and eschar
B.) To limit fluid loss through the skin
C.) To prevent growth of microorganisms
D.) To decrease formation of disfiguring scars

100.) Deep partial thickness burns (2nd degree) involves the:

A.) Epidermis
B.) Entire epidermis and the dermis

C.) Epidermis, dermis and the muscles
D.) Epidermis, dermis, muscle and the bones


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1 comment:

  1. AnonymousMay 6, 2011 at 5:16 AM

    Anyone has the answer key for funda drill 7? We can't access the answer key...

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