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HI there....welcome To test visual acuity, the nurse should ask the patient to cover each eye separately and read the eye chart with glasses and without, as appropriate. Fundamental of Nursing Before teaching any procedure to the patient, the nurse must first assess the patient’s willingness to learn and his current knowledge. Fundamentals of Nursing A blood pressure cuff that is too narrow can cause a falsely elevated blood pressure reading. Fundamentals of Nursing When preparing a single injection for a patient who takes regular and NPH insulin, the nurse should draw the regular insulin into the syringe first because it is clear and can be measured more accurately than the NPH insulin, which is turbid. Fundamentals of Nursing Rhonchi refers to the rumbling sounds heard on lung auscultation; they are more pronounced during expiration than during inspiration. Fundamentals of Nursing Gavage refers to forced feeding, usually through a gastric tube (a tube passed into the stomach by way of the mouth). Fundamentals of Nursing According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, physiologic needs (air, water, food, shelter, sex, activity, and comfort) have the highest priority. Fundamentals of Nursing Checking the identification band on a patient’s wrist is the safest and surest way to verify a patient’s identity. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient’s safety is the priority concern in developing a therapeutic environment. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should place the patient with a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube in semi-Fowler’s position. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse can elicit Trousseau’s sign by occluding the brachial or radial artery; hand and finger spasms during occlusion indicate Trousseau’s sign and suggest hypocalcemia. Fundamentals of Nursing For blood transfusion in an adult, the appropriate needle size is 16 to 20G. Fundamentals of Nursing Pain that incapacities a patient and can’t be relieved by drugs is called intractable pain. Fundamentals of Nursing In an emergency, consent for treatment can be obtained by fax, telephone, or other telegraphic transmission. Fundamentals of Nursing Decibel is the unit of measurement of sound. Fundamentals of Nursing Informed consent is required for any invasive procedure. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient who can’t write his or her name to give consent for treatment must have his or her X witnessed by two persons, such as a nurse, priest, or doctor. Fundamentals of Nursing The Z-track I.M. injection technique seals medication deep into the muscle, thereby minimizing skin irritation and staining. It requires a needle that is 1’’ (2.5 cm) or longer. Fundamentals of Nursing A registered nurse (RN) should assign a licensed vocational nurse (LVN) or licensed practical nurse (LPN) to perform bedside care, such as suctioning and medication administration. Fundamentals of Nursing The therapeutic purposed of a mist tent is to increase hydration of secretions. Fundamentals of Nursing If a patient can’t void, the first nursing action should be bladder palpation to assess for bladder distention. Fundamentals of Nursing The patient who uses a cane should carry it on the unaffected side and advance it at the same time as the affected extremity. Fundamentals of Nursing To fit a supine patient for crutches, the nurse should measure from the axilla to the sole and add 2” (5 cm) to that measurement. Fundamentals of Nursing Assessment begins with the nurse’s first encounter with the patient and continues throughout the patient’s stay. The nurse obtains assessment data through the health history, physical examination, and review of diagnostic studies. Fundamentals of Nursing The appropriate needle size for an insulin injection is 25G and ⅝" (1.5 cm) long. Fundamentals of Nursing Residual urine refers to urine that remains in the bladder after voiding. The amount of residual urine normally ranges from 50 to 100 ml. Fundamentals of Nursing The five stages of the nursing process are assessment, nursing diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation. Fundamentals of Nursing Planning refers to the stage of the nursing process in which the nurse assigns priorities to nursing diagnoses, defines short-term and long-term goals and expected outcomes, and establishes the nursing care plan. Fundamentals of Nursing Implementation refers to the stage of the nursing process in which the nurse puts the nursing care plan into action, delegates specific nursing interventions to members of the nursing team, and charts patient responses to nursing interventions. Fundamentals of Nursing Evaluation refers to the stage of the nursing process in which the nurse compares objective and subjective data with the outcome criteria and, if needed, modifies the nursing care plan, making the nursing process circular. Fundamentals of Nursing In the event of fire, the nurse should (1) remove the patient, (2) call the fire department, (3) attempt to contain the fire by closing the door, and (4) extinguish the fire, if it can be done safely. Fundamentals of Nursing Before administering any as need pain medication, the nurse should ask the patient to indicate the pain’s location. Fundamentals of Nursing Jehovah’s Witnesses believe that they shouldn’t receive blood components donated by other people. Fundamentals of Nursing When providing oral care for an unconscious patient, the nurse should position the patient on the side to minimize the risk of aspiration. Fundamentals of Nursing During assessment of distance vision, the patient should stand 20’ (6.1 m) from the chart. Fundamentals of Nursing The ideal room temperature for a geriatric patient or one who is extremely ill ranges form 66º to 76º F (18.8º to 24.4º C). Fundamentals of Nursing Normal room humidity ranges from 30% to 60%. Fundamentals of Nursing Hand washing is the single best method of limiting the spread of microorganisms. Hands should be washed for 10 seconds after routine contact with a patient and after gloves are removed. Fundamentals of Nursing To catheterize a female patient, the nurse should place her in the dorsal recumbent position. Fundamentals of Nursing A positive Homan’s sign may indicate thrombophlebitis. Fundamentals of Nursing Electrolytes in a solution are measured in milliequivalents per liter (mEq/L). A milliequivalent equals the number of milligrams per 100 milliliters of a solution. Fundamentals of Nursing Metabolism takes a place in two phases: anabolism (the constructive phase) and catabolism (the destructive phase). Fundamentals of Nursing The basal metabolic rate represents the amount of energy needed to maintain essential body functions. It is measured when the patient is awake and resting, hasn’t eaten for 14 to 18 hours, and is in a comfortable, warm environment. Fundamentals of Nursing Dietary fiber (roughage), which is derived from cellulose, supplies bulk, maintains adequate intestinal motility, and helps establish regular bowel habits. Fundamentals of Nursing Alcohol is metabolized primarily in the liver. Smaller amounts are metabolized by the kidneys and lungs. Fundamentals of Nursing Petechiae refers to tiny, round, purplish red spots that appear on the skin and mucous membranes as a result of intradermal or submucosal hemorrhage. Fundamentals of Nursing Purpura refers to a purple skin discoloration caused by blood extravasation. Fundamentals of Nursing Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (C6PD) deficiency is an inherited metabolic disorder characterized by red blood cells that are deficient in G6PD, a critical enzyme in aerobic glycolysis. Fundamentals of Nursing According to the standard precautions recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the nurse shouldn’t recap needles after use because most needle sticks result from missed needle recapping. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse administers a drug by I.V. push by delivering the dose directly into a vein, I.V. tubing, or catheter with a needle and syringe. Fundamentals of Nursing When changing the ties on a tracheostomy tube, the nurse should leave the old ties in place until the new ones are applied. Fundamentals of Nursing A nurse should have assistance when changing the ties on a tracheostomy tube. Fundamentals of Nursing A filter is always used for blood transfusions. Fundamentals of Nursing A four-point (quad) cane is indicated when a patient needs more stability than a regular cane can provide. Fundamentals of Nursing The patient should carry a cane on the unaffected side to promote a reciprocal gait pattern and distribute weight away from the affected leg. Fundamentals of Nursing A good way to begin a patient interview is to ask “What made you seek medical help?” Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should adhere to standard precautions for blood and body fluids when caring for all patients. Fundamentals of Nursing Potassium (K+) is the most abundant cation in intracellular fluid. Fundamentals of Nursing In the four-point gait (or alternating gait), the patient first moves the right crutch followed by the left foot and then the left crutch followed by the right foot. Fundamentals of Nursing In the three-point gait, the patient moves two crutches and the affected leg simultaneously and then moves the unaffected leg. Fundamentals of Nursing In the two-point gait, the patient moves the right leg and the left crutch simultaneously and then moves the left leg and the right crutch. Fundamentals of Nursing Vitamin B complex, the water-soluble vitamins essential for metabolism, include thiamine (B1), riboflavin (B2), niacin (B3), pyridoxine (B6), and cyanocobalamin (B12). Fundamentals of Nursing When being weighed, an adult patient should be lightly dressed and shoeless. Fundamentals of Nursing Before taking an adult’s oral temperature, the nurse should ensure that the patient hasn’t smoked or consumed hot or cold substances in the past 15 minutes. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse shouldn’t take a rectal temperature on an adult patient if the patient has a cardiac disorder; anal lesions, or bleeding hemorrhoids or has recently undergone rectal surgery. Fundamentals of Nursing In a patient with cardiac problems, rectal temperature measurement may stimulate a vagal response, leading to vasodilation and decreased cardiac output. Fundamentals of Nursing When recording pulse amplitude and rhythm, the nurse should use these descriptive measures: +3 indicates a bounding pulse (readily palpable and forceful); +2, a normal pulse (easily palpable); +1, a thready or weak pulse (difficult to detect); and 0, an absent pulse (not detectable). Fundamentals of Nursing The intraoperative period begins when a patient is transferred to the operating room bed and ends when the patient is admitted to the postanesthesia recovery unit. Fundamentals of Nursing On the morning of surgery, the nurse should ensure that the informed consent form has been signed; that the patient hasn’t taken anything by mouth since midnight, has taken a shower with antimicrobial soap, has had mouth care (without swallowing the water, has removed common jewelry, and has received preoperative medication as prescribed; and that vital signs have taken and recorded. Artificial limbs and other prostheses are usually removed. Fundamentals of Nursing Comfort measures, such as positioning the patient, performing backrubs, and providing a restful environment, may decrease the patient’s need for analgesics or may enhance their effectiveness. Fundamentals of Nursing A drug has three names: its generic name, which is used in official publications; its trade name or brand name (such as Tylenol), which is selected by the drug company; and its chemical name, which describes the drug’s chemical composition. Fundamentals of Nursing The patient should take a liquid iron preparation through a straw to avoid staining the teeth. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use the Z-track method to administer an I.M. injection of iron dextran (Imferon). Fundamentals of Nursing An organism may enter the body through the nose, mouth, rectum, urinary or reproductive tract, or skin. Fundamentals of Nursing In descending order, the levels of consciousness are alertness, lethargy, stupor, light coma, and deep coma. Fundamentals of Nursing To turn a patient by logrolling, the nurse folds the patient’s arms across the chest; extends the patient’s legs and inserts a pillow between them, if indicated; places a draw sheet under the patient; and turns the patient by slowly and gently pulling on the draw sheet. Fundamentals of Nursing The diaphragm of the stethoscope is used to hear high-pitched sounds such as breath sounds. Fundamentals of Nursing A slight blood pressure difference (5 to 10 mm Hg) between right and left arms is normal. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should place the blood pressure cuff 1'' (2.5 cm) above the antecubital fossa. Fundamentals of Nursing When instilling ophthalmic ointments, waste the first bed of ointment and then apply from the inner canthus to the outer canthus; twist the medication tube to detach the ointment. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use a leg cuff to measure blood pressure in an obese patient. Fundamentals of Nursing If the blood pressure cuff is applied too loosely, the reading will be falsely elevated. Fundamentals of Nursing Ptosis refers to eyelid drooping. Fundamentals of Nursing A tilt table is useful for a patient with a spinal cord injury, orthostatic hypotension, or brain damage because it can move the patient gradually from a horizontal to a vertical (upright) position. Fundamentals of Nursing To perform venipuncture with the least injury to the vessel, the nurse should turn the bevel upward when the vessel’s lumen is larger than the needle and turn it downward when the lumen is only slightly larger than the needle. Fundamentals of Nursing To move the patient to the edge of the bed for transfer, follow these steps: (1) Move the patient’s head and shoulders toward the edge of the bed. (2) Move the patient’s feet and legs to the edge of the bed (crescent position). (3) Place both the arms well under the patient’s hips and straighten the back while moving the patient toward the edge of the bed. Fundamentals of Nursing When being measured for crutches, a patient should wear his or her shoes. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should attach a restraint to a part of the bed frame that moves with the head, not to the mattress or side rails. Fundamentals of Nursing The mist in a mist tent should never become so dense that it obscures clear visualization of the patient’s respiratory pattern. Fundamentals of Nursing To administer heparin subcutaneously, the nurse should follow these steps: (1) Clean, but don’t rub, the site with alcohol. (2) Stretch the skin taut or pick up a well-defined skin fold. (3)Hold the shaft of the needle in a dart position. (4)Insert the needle into the skin at a right (90-degree) angle. (5)Firmly depress the plunger; but don’t aspirate. (6)Leave the needle in place for 10 seconds. (7)Withdraw the needle gently at the same angle it was inserted. (8)Apply pressure to the injection site with an alcohol pad. Fundamentals of Nursing For a sigmoidoscopy, the nurse should place the patient in a knee-chest or Sims’ position, depending on the doctor’s preference. Fundamentals of Nursing Maslow’s hierarchy of needs must be met in the following order: physiologic (oxygen, food, water, sex, rest, and comfort) safety and security, love and belonging, self-esteem and recognition, and self-actualization. Fundamentals of Nursing When caring for patient with a nasogastric tube, the nurse should apply a water-soluble lubricant to the nostril to prevent soreness. Fundamentals of Nursing During gastric lavage, a nasogastric tube is inserted, the stomach is flushed, and ingested substances are removed through the tube. Fundamentals of Nursing In documenting drainage on a surgical dressing, the nurse should include the size, color, and consistency of the drainage, for example, “10 mm of brown mucoid drainage noted on dressing.” Fundamentals of Nursing To elicit Babinski’s reflex, the nurse strokes the sole of the patient’s foot with a moderately sharp object, such as thumbnail. Fundamentals of Nursing In a positive Babinski’s reflex, the great toe dorsiflexes and the other toes fan out. Fundamentals of Nursing When assessing a patient for bladder distention, the nurse should check the contour of the lower abdomen for a rounded mass above the symphysis pubis. Fundamentals of Nursing The best way to prevent pressure ulcers is to reposition the bedridden patient at least every 2 hours. Fundamentals of Nursing Antiembolism stockings decompress the superficial blood vessels, thereby reducing the risk of thrombus formation. Fundamentals of Nursing The most convenient veins for venipuncture in a adult patient are the basilic and median cubital veins in the antecubital space. Fundamentals of Nursing From 2 to 3 hours before beginning a tube feeding, the nurse should aspirate the patient’s stomach contents to verify adequate gastric emptying. Fundamentals of Nursing People with type O blood are considered to be universal donors. Fundamentals of Nursing People with type AB blood are considered to be universal recipients. Fundamentals of Nursing Herts (Hz) refers to the unit of measurement of sound frequency. Fundamentals of Nursing Hearing protection is required when the sound intensity exceeds 84 dB; double hearing protection is required if it exceeds 104 dB. Fundamentals of Nursing Prothrombin, a clotting factor, is produced in the liver. Fundamentals of Nursing If a patient is menstruating when a urine sample is collected, the nurse should note this on the laboratory slip. Fundamentals of Nursing During lumbar puncture, the nurse must note the initial intracranial pressure and the cerebrospinal fluid color. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient who can’t cough to provide a sputum sample for culture may require a heated aerosol treatment to facilitate removal of a sample. Fundamentals of Nursing If eye ointment and eyedrops must be instilled in the same eye, the eyedrops should be instilled first. Fundamentals of Nursing When leaving an isolation room, the nurse should remove the gloves before the mask because fewer pathogens are on the mask. Fundamentals of Nursing Skeletal traction is applied to a bone using wire pins or tons. It is the most effective means of traction. Fundamentals of Nursing The total parenteral nutrition solution should be stored in a refrigerator and removed 30 to 60 minutes before use because delivery of a chilled solution can cause pain, hypothermia, venous spasm, and venous constriction. Fundamentals of Nursing Medication isn’t routinely injected I.M. into edematous tissue because it may not be absorbed. Fundamentals of Nursing When caring for a comatose patient, the nurse should explain each action to the patient in a normal voice. Fundamentals of Nursing When cleaning dentures, the sink should be lined with a washcloth. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient should void within 8 hours after surgery. Fundamentals of Nursing An EEG identifies normal and abnormal brain waves. Fundamentals of Nursing Stool samples for ova and parasite tests should be delivered to the laboratory without delay or refrigeration. Fundamentals of Nursing The autonomic nervous system regulates the cardiovascular and respiratory systems. Fundamentals of Nursing When providing tracheostomy care, the nurse should insert the catheter gently into the tracheostomy tube. When withdrawing the catheter, the nurse should apply intermittent suction for no more than 15 seconds and use a slight twisting motion. Fundamentals of Nursing A low-residue diet includes such as foods as roasted chicken, rice, and pasta. Fundamentals of Nursing A rectal tube should not be inserted for longer than 20 minutes; it can irritate the mucosa of the rectum and cause a loss of sphincter control. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient’s bed bath should proceed in this order: face, neck, arms, hands, chest, abdomen, back, legs, perineum. Fundamentals of Nursing When lifting and moving a patient, the nurse should use the upper leg muscles most to prevent injury. Fundamentals of Nursing Patient preparation for cholecystography includes ingestion of a contrast medium and a low-fat evening meal. Fundamentals of Nursing During occupied bed changes, the patient should be covered with a black blanket to promote warmth and prevent exposure. Fundamentals of Nursing Anticipatory grief refers to mourning that occurs for an extended time when one realizes that death is inevitable. Fundamentals of Nursing The following foods can alter stool color: beets (red), cocoa (dark red or brown), licorice (black), spinach (green), and meat protein (dark brown). Fundamentals of Nursing When preparing a patient for a skull X-ray, have the patient remove all jewelry and dentures. Fundamentals of Nursing The fight-or-flight response is a sympathetic nervous system response. Fundamentals of Nursing Bronchovesicular breath sounds in peripheral lung fields are abnormal and suggest pneumonia. Fundamentals of Nursing Wheezing refers to an abnormal, high-pitched breath sound that is accentuated on expiration. Fundamentals of Nursing Wax or a foreign body in the ear should be gently flushed out by irrigation with warm saline solution. Fundamentals of Nursing If a patient complains that his hearing aid is “not working,” the nurse should check the switch first to see if it’s turned on and then check the batteries. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should grade hyperactive biceps and triceps reflexes +4. Fundamentals of Nursing If two eye medications are prescribed for twice-daily instillation, they should be administered 5 minutes apart. Fundamentals of Nursing In a postoperative patient, forcing fluids helps prevent constipation. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse must administer care in accordance with standards of care established by the American Nurses Association, state regulations, and facility policy. Fundamentals of Nursing The kilocalorie (kcal) is a unit of energy measurement that represents the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 kilogram of water 1º C. Fundamentals of Nursing As nutrients move through the body, they undergo ingestion, digestion, absorption, transport, cell metabolism, and excretion. Fundamentals of Nursing The body metabolizes alcohol at a fixed rate regardless of serum concentration. Fundamentals of Nursing In an alcoholic beverage, its proof reflects its percentage of alcohol multiplied by 2. For example, a 100-proof beverage contains 50% alcohol. Fundamentals of Nursing A living will is a witnessed document that states a patient’s desire for certain types of care and treatment, which depends on the patient’s wishes and views and quality of life. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should flush a peripheral heparin lock every 8 hours (if it wasn’t used during the previous 8 hours) and as needed with normal saline solution to maintain patency. Fundamentals of Nursing Quality assurance is a method of determining whether nursing actions and practices meet established standards. Fundamentals of Nursing The five rights of medication administration are the right patient, right medication, right dose, right route of administration, and the right time. Fundamentals of Nursing Outside of the hospital setting, only the sublingual and transligual forms of nitroglycerin should be used to relieve acute anginal attacks. Fundamentals of Nursing The implementation phase of the nursing process involves recording the patient’s response to the nursing plan, putting the nursing plan into action, delegating specific nursing interventions, and coordinating the patient’s activities. Fundamentals of Nursing The Patient’s Bill of Rights offers guidance and protection to patients by stating the responsibilities of the hospital and its staff toward patients and their families during hospitalization. Fundamentals of Nursing To minimize the omissions and distortion of facts, the nurse should record information as soon as it is gathered. Fundamentals of Nursing When assessing a patient’s health history, the nurse should record the current illness chronologically, beginning with the onset of the problem and continuing to the present. Fundamentals of Nursing Drug administration is a dependent activity. The nurse can administer or withhold a drug only with the doctor’s permission. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse shouldn’t give false assurance to a patient. Fundamentals of Nursing After receiving preoperative medication, a patient isn’t competent to sign an informed consent form. Fundamentals of Nursing When lifting a patient, a nurse uses the weight of her body instead of the strength in her arms. Fundamentals of Nursing A nurse may clarify a doctor’s explanation to a patient about an operation or a procedure but must refer questions about informed consent to the doctor. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse shouldn’t use her thumb to take a patient’s pulse rate because the thumb has a pulse of its own and may be confused with the patient’s pulse. Fundamentals of Nursing An inspiration and an expiration count as one respiration. Fundamentals of Nursing Normal respirations are known as eupnea. Fundamentals of Nursing During a blood pressure measurement, the patient should rest the arm against a surface because using muscle strength to hold up the arm may raise the blood pressure. Fundamentals of Nursing Major unalterable risk factors for coronary artery disease include heredity, sex, race, and age. Fundamentals of Nursing Inspection is the most frequently used assessment technique. Fundamentals of Nursing Family members of an elderly person in a long-term care facility should transfer some personal items (such as photographs, a favorite chair, and knickknacks) to the person’s room to provide a homey atmosphere. Fundamentals of Nursing The upper respiratory tract warms and humidifies inspired air and plays a role in taste, smell, and mastication. Fundamentals of Nursing Signs of accessory muscle use include shoulder elevation, intercostal muscle retraction, and scalene and sternocleidosmastoid muscle use during respiration. Fundamentals of Nursing When patients use axillary crutches, their palms should bear the brunt of the weight. Fundamentals of Nursing Activities of daily living include eating, bathing, dressing, grooming, toileting, and interacting socially. Fundamentals of Nursing Normal gait has two phases: the stance phase, in which the patient’s foot rests on the ground, and the swing phase, in which that patient’s foot moves forward. Fundamentals of Nursing The phases of mitosis are prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should follow standard precautions in the routine care of all patients. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use the bell of the stethoscope to listen for venous hums and cardiac murmurs. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse can assess a patient’s general knowledge by asking questions such as “Who is the president for the United States?” Fundamentals of Nursing Cold packs are applied for the first 20 to 48 hours after an injury; then heat is applied. During cold application, the pack is applied for 20 minutes and then removed for 10 to 15 minutes to prevent reflex dilation (rebound phenomenon) and frostbite injury. Fundamentals of Nursing The pons is located above the medulla and consists of white matter (sensory and motor tracts) and gray matter (reflex centers). Fundamentals of Nursing The autonomic nervous system controls the smooth muscles. Fundamentals of Nursing A correctly written patient goal expresses the desired patient behavior, criteria for measurement, time frame for achievement, and conditions under which the behavior will occur. It is developed in collaboration with the patient. Fundamentals of Nursing The optic disk is yellowish pink and circular with a distinct border. Fundamentals of Nursing A primary disability results from a pathologic process; a secondary disability, from inactivity. Nurses usually are held liable for failing to keep an accurate count of sponges and other devices during surgery. Fundamentals of Nursing The best dietary sources of vitamin B6 are liver, kidney, pork, soybeans, corn, and whole-grain cereals. Fundamentals of Nursing Iron-rich foods, such as organ meats, nuts, legumes, dried fruit, leafy vegetables, eggs, and whole gains, generally have low water content. Fundamentals of Nursing Collaboration refers to joint communication and decision making between nurses and doctors designed to meet patients’ needs by integrating the care regimens of both professions in one comprehensive approach. Fundamentals of Nursing Bradycardia refers to a heart rate of fewer than 60 beats/minute. Fundamentals of Nursing A nursing diagnosis is a statement of a patient’s actual or potential health problems that can be resolved, diminished, or otherwise changed by nursing interventions. Fundamentals of Nursing During the assessment phase of the nursing process, the nurse collects and analyzes three types of data: health history, physical examination, and laboratory and diagnostic test data. Fundamentals of Nursing The patient’s health history consists primarily of subjective data, information supplied by patient. Fundamentals of Nursing The physical examination includes objective data obtained by inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation. Fundamentals of Nursing When documenting patient care, the nurse should write legibly, use only standard abbreviations, and sign every entry. The nurse should never destroy or attempt to obliterate documentation or leave vacant lines. Fundamentals of Nursing Factors that affect body temperature include time of day, age, physical activity, phase of menstrual cycle, and pregnancy. Fundamentals of Nursing The most accessible and commonly used artery for measuring a patient’s pulse rate is the radial artery, which is compressed against the radius to take the pulse rate. Fundamentals of Nursing The normal pulse rate of a resting adult is 60 to 100 beats/minute. The rate is slightly faster in women than in men and much faster in children than in adults. Fundamentals of Nursing Laboratory test results are an objective form of assessment data. Fundamentals of Nursing The measurement systems most often used in clinical practice are the metric system, apothecaries’ system, and household system. Fundamentals of Nursing Before signing an informed consent, a patient should know whether other treatment options are available and should understand what will occur during the preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative phase; the risk involved; and the possible complications. The patient also should have a general idea of the time required from surgery to recovery and should have an opportunity to ask questions. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient must sign a separate informed consent form for each procedure. Fundamentals of Nursing During percussion, the nurse uses quick, sharp tapping of the fingers or hands against body surfaces to produce sounds (that helps determine the size, shape, position, and density of underlying organs and tissues), elicit tenderness, or assess reflexes. Fundamentals of Nursing Ballottement is a form of light palpation involving gentle, repetitive bouncing of tissues against the hand and feeling their rebound. Fundamentals of Nursing A foot cradle keeps bed linen off the patient’s feet, which prevent skin irritation and breakdown, especially in a patient with peripheral vascular disease or neuropathy. Fundamentals of Nursing If the patient is a married minor, permission to perform a procedure can be obtained form the patient’s spouse. Fundamentals of Nursing Gastric lavage is the flushing of the stomach and removal of ingested substances through a nasogastric tube. It can be used to treat poisoning or drug overdose. Fundamentals of Nursing During the evaluation step of the nursing process, the nurse assesses the patient’s response to therapy. Fundamentals of Nursing Bruits commonly indicate a life- or limb-threatening vascular disease. Fundamentals of Nursing O.U. means each eye; O.D., right eye; and O.S, left eye. Fundamentals of Nursing To remove a patient’s artificial eye, the nurse depresses the lower lid. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use a warm saline solution to clean an artificial eye. Fundamentals of Nursing A thready pulse is very fine and scarcely perceptible. Fundamentals of Nursing Axillary temperature usually is 1º F lower than oral temperature. Fundamentals of Nursing After suctioning a tracheostomy tube, the nurse must document the color, amount, consistency, and odor of secretions. Fundamentals of Nursing On a medication prescription, the abbreviation p.c. means that the medication should be administered after meals. Fundamentals of Nursing After bladder irrigation, the nurse should document the amount, color, and clarity of the urine and the presence of clots or sediment. Fundamentals of Nursing Laws regarding patient self-determination vary from state to state. Therefore, the nurse must be familiar with the laws of the state in which she works. Fundamentals of Nursing Gauge refers to the inside diameter of a needle. The smaller the gauge, the larger the diameter. Fundamentals of Nursing An adult normally has 32 permanent teeth. Fundamentals of Nursing After turning a patient, the nurse should document the position used, time turned, and skin assessment findings. Fundamentals of Nursing PERRLA is an abbreviation for normal pupil assessment findings: pupils equal, round, and reactive to light with accommodation. Fundamentals of Nursing When purcussing a patient’s chest for postural drainage, the nurse’s hands should be cupped. Fundamentals of Nursing When measuring a patient’s pulse, the nurse should assess the rate, rhythms, quality, and strength. Fundamentals of Nursing Before transferring a patient from a bed to a wheelchair, the nurse should push the wheelchair’s footrests to the sides and lock its wheels. Fundamentals of Nursing When assessing respirations, the nurse should document the rate, rhythm, depth, and quality. Fundamentals of Nursing For a subcutaneous injection, the nurse should use a ⅝" 25G needle. Fundamentals of Nursing The notation “AA & O x 3” indicates that the patient is awake, alert, and oriented to person (knows who he is), place (knows where he is), and time (knows the date and time). Fundamentals of Nursing Fluid intake includes all fluids taken by mouth, including foods that are liquid at room temperature, such as gelatin, custard, and ice cream; I.V. fluids; and fluids administered in feeding tubes. Fluid output includes urine, vomitus, and drainage (such as from a nasogastric tube or from a wound) as well as blood loss, diarrhea or stool, and perspiration. Fundamentals of Nursing After administering an intradermal injection, the nurse shouldn’t massage the area because massage can irritate the site and interfere with results. Fundamentals of Nursing When administering an intradermal injection, the nurse should hold the syringe almost flat against the patient’s skin (at about a 15-degree angle) with the bevel up. Fundamentals of Nursing To obtain an accurate blood pressure, the nurse should inflate the manometer 20 to 30 mm Hg above the disappearance of the radial pulse before releasing the cuff pressure. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should count an irregular pulse for 1 full minute. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient who is vomiting while lying down should be placed in a lateral position to prevent aspiration of vomitus. Fundamentals of Nursing Prophylaxis is disease prevention. Fundamentals of Nursing Body alignment is achieved when the body parts are in proper relation to their natural position. Fundamentals of Nursing Trust is the foundation of a nurse-patient relationship. Fundamentals of Nursing Blood pressure in the force exerted by the circulating volume of blood on arterial walls. Fundamentals of Nursing Malpractice refers to the professional’s wrongful conduct, improper discharge of duties, or failure to meet standers of care, which causes harm to another. Fundamentals of Nursing As a general rule, nurses can’t refuse a patient care assignment; however, they may refuse to participate in abortions in most states. Fundamentals of Nursing A nurse can be found negligent if a patient is injured because the nurse failed to perform a duty that a reasonable and prudent person would perform or because the nurse performed an act that a reasonable and prudent person wouldn’t perform. Fundamentals of Nursing States have enacted Good Samaritan laws to encourage professionals to provide medical assistance at the scene of an accident without fear of a lawsuit arising from such assistance. These laws don’t apply to care provided in a health care facility. Fundamentals of Nursing A doctor should sign verbal and telephone orders within the time established by institutional policy, usually within 24 hours. Fundamentals of Nursing A competent adult has the right to refuse lifesaving medical treatment; however, the individual should be fully informed of the consequences of this refusal. Fundamentals of Nursing Although a patient’s health record or chart is the health care facility’s physical property, its contents belong to the patient. Fundamentals of Nursing Before a patient’s record can be released to a third party, the patient or patient’s legal guardian must give written consent. Fundamentals of Nursing Under the Controlled Substances Act, every dose of a controlled drug dispensed by the pharmacy must be counted for, whether the dose was administered to a particular patient or discarded accidentally. Fundamentals of Nursing A nurse can’t perform duties that violate a rule or regulation established by a state licensing board even if it is authorized by a health care facility or doctor. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should select a private room, preferably with a door that can be closed, to minimize interruptions during a patient interview. Fundamentals of Nursing In categorizing nursing diagnosis, the nurse should address actual life-threatening problems first, followed by potentially life-threatening concerns. Fundamentals of Nursing The major components of a nursing care plan are outcome criteria (patient goals) and nursing interventions. Fundamentals of Nursing Standing orders, or protocols, establish guidelines for treating a particular disease or set of symptoms. Fundamentals of Nursing In assessing a patient’s heart, the nurse normally finds the point of maximal impulse at the fifth intercostals space near the apex. Fundamentals of Nursing The S1 sound heard on auscultation is caused by closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves. Fundamentals of Nursing To maintain package sterility, the nurse should open the wrapper’s top flap away from the body, open side flap by touching only the outer part of the wrapper, and open the final flap by grasping the turned-down corner and pulling it toward the body. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse shouldn’t use a cotton-tipped applicator to dry a patient’s ear canal or remove wax because it may force cerumen against the tympanic membrane. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient’s identification bracelet should remain in place until the patient has been discharged from the health care facility and has left the premises. Fundamentals of Nursing The Controlled Substances Act designated five categories, or schedules, that classify controlled drugs according to their abuse liability. Fundamentals of Nursing Schedule I drugs, such as heroin, have a high abuse potential and have no currently accepted medical use in the United States. Fundamentals of Nursing Schedule II drugs, such as morphine, opium, and meperidine (Demerol), have a high abuse potential but have currently accepted medical uses. Their use may lead to physical or psychological dependence. Fundamentals of Nursing Schedule III drugs, such as paregoric and butabarbital (Butisol), have a lower abuse potential than Schedule I or II drugs. Abuse of Schedule III drugs may lead to moderate or low physical or psychological dependence, or both. Fundamentals of Nursing Schedule IV drugs, such as chloral hydrate, have a low abuse potential compared with Schedule III drugs. Fundamentals of Nursing Schedule V drugs, such as cough syrups that contain codeine, have the lowest abuse potential of the controlled substances. Fundamentals of Nursing Activities of daily living are actions that the patient must perform every day to provide self-care and interact with society. Fundamentals of Nursing Testing of the six cardinal fields of gaze evaluates the function of all extraocular muscles and cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. Fundamentals of Nursing The six types of heart murmurs are graded from 1 to 6. A grade 6 heart murmur can be heard with stethoscope slightly raised from the chest. Fundamentals of Nursing The most important goal to include in a care plan is the patient’s goal. Fundamentals of Nursing Fruits are high in fiber and low in protein and should be omitted from a low-residue diet. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use an objective scale to assess and quantify pain because postoperative pain varies greatly among individuals. Fundamentals of Nursing Postmortem care includes cleaning and preparing the deceased patient for family viewing, arranging transportation to the morgue or funeral home, and determining the disposition of belongings. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should provide honest answers to the patient’s questions. Fundamentals of Nursing Milk shouldn’t be included in a clear liquid diet. Fundamentals of Nursing Consistency in nursing personnel is paramount when caring for a child, and infant, or a confused patient. Fundamentals of Nursing The hypothalamus secretes vasopressin and oxytocin, which are stored in the pituitary gland. Fundamentals of Nursing The three membranes that enclose that brain and spinal cord are the dura mater, pia mater, and arachnoid. Fundamentals of Nursing A nasogastric tube is used to remove fluid and gas from the small intestine preoperatively or postoperatively. Fundamentals of Nursing Psychologists, physical therapists, and chiropractors aren’t authorized to write prescriptions for medication. Fundamentals of Nursing The area around a stoma should be cleaned with mild soap and water. Fundamentals of Nursing Vegetables have a high fiber content. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use a tuberculin syringe to administer an S.C. injection of less than 1 ml. Fundamentals of Nursing For adults, S.C. injections require a 25G 1" needle; for infants, children, elderly, or very thin patients, they require a 25G to 27G ½" needle. Fundamentals of Nursing Before administering medication, the nurse should identify the patient by checking the identification band and asking the patient to state his name. Fundamentals of Nursing To clean the skin before an injection, the nurse should use a sterile alcohol swab and wipe from the center of the site outward in a circular motion. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse always should inject heparin deep into S.C. tissue at a 90-degree angle (perpendicular to the skin) to prevent skin irritation. Fundamentals of Nursing If blood is aspirated into the syringe before an I.M. injection, the nurse should withdraw the needle, prepare another syringe, and repeat the procedure. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse shouldn’t cut the patient’s hair without written consent from the patient or an appropriate relative. Fundamentals of Nursing If bleeding occurs after an injection, the nurse should apply pressure until the bleeding stops; if bruising occurs, the nurse should monitor the site for an enlarging hematoma. Fundamentals of Nursing When providing hair and scalp care, the nurse should begin combing at the end of the hair and work toward the head. Fundamentals of Nursing Frequency of patient hair care depends on the length and texture of the hair, duration of hospitalization, and patient’s condition. Fundamentals of Nursing Proper hearing aid function requires careful handling during insertion and removal, regular cleaning of the ear piece to prevent wax buildup, and prompt replacement of dead batteries. Fundamentals of Nursing The hearing aid marked with a blue dot is for the left ear; the one with the red dot is for the right ear. Fundamentals of Nursing A hearing aid shouldn’t be exposed to heat or humidity and shouldn’t be immersed in water. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should instruct a patient not to use hair spray while wearing a hearing aid. Fundamentals of Nursing The five branches of pharmacology are pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, pharmacotherapeutics, toxicology, and pharmacognosy. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should remove heel protectors every 8 hours to inspect the foot for signs of skin breakdown. Fundamentals of Nursing The purpose of heat application is to promote vasodilation, which reduces pain caused by inflammation. Fundamentals of Nursing A sutured surgical incision is an example of healing by first intention (healing directly, without granulation). Fundamentals of Nursing Healing by secondary intention (healing by granulation) is closure of the wound by the granulation tissue filling the defect and allowing reepithelialization to occur, beginning at the wound edges and continuing to the center, until the entire wound is covered. Fundamentals of Nursing Keloid formation is an abnormality in healing characterized by overgrowth of scar tissue at the wound site. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should administer procaine penicillin by deep I.M. injection in the upper outer portion of the buttocks in the adult or in the midlateral thigh in the child. The nurse shouldn’t massage the injection site. Fundamentals of Nursing The ascending colostomy drains fluid feces; the descending colostomy drains solid fecal matter. Fundamentals of Nursing A folded towel (called a scrotal bridge) can provide scrotal support for the patient with scrotal edema caused by vasectomy, epididymitis, or orchitis. Fundamentals of Nursing When giving an injection to the patient with a bleeding disorder, the nurse should use a small-gauge needle and apply pressure to the site for 5 minutes after the injection. Fundamentals of Nursing Platelets are the smallest and most fragile formed element of the blood and are essential for coagulation. Fundamentals of Nursing To insert a nasogastric tube, the nurse should first instruct the patient to tilt the head back slightly and then insert the tube. When the tube is felt curving at the pharynx, the nurse should tell the patient to tilt the head forward to close the trachea and open the esophagus by swallowing. (Sips of water can facilitate this action.) Fundamentals of Nursing According to families whose loved ones are in intensive care units, their four most important needs are to have questions answered honestly, to be assured that the best possible car is being provided, to know the prognosis, and to feel there is hope. Fundamentals of Nursing A double-bind communication when the verbal message contradicts the nonverbal message and the receiver is unsure of which message to respond to. Fundamentals of Nursing A nonjudgmental attitude displayed by the nurse demonstrates that she neither approves nor disapproves of the patient. Fundamentals of Nursing Target symptoms are those that the patient and others find most distressing. Fundamentals of Nursing Advise the patient to take aspirin on an empty stomach with a full glass of water and to avoid foods with acid such as coffee, citrus fruits, and cola. Fundamentals of Nursing For every patient problem, there is a nursing diagnosis; for every nursing diagnosis, there is a goal; and for every goal, there are interventions designed to make the goal a reality. The keys to answering examination questions correctly are identifying the problem presented, formulating a goal for that specific problem, and then selecting the intervention from the choices provided that will enable the patient to reach that goal. Fundamentals of Nursing Fidelity means loyalty and can be shown as a commitment to the profession of nursing and to the patient. Fundamentals of Nursing Giving an I.M. injection against the patient’s will and without legal authority is battery. Fundamentals of Nursing An example of a third-party payor is an insurance company. Fundamentals of Nursing On-call medication should be given within 5 minutes of receipt of the call. Fundamentals of Nursing Generally, the best method to determine the cultural or spiritual needs of the patient is to ask him. Fundamentals of Nursing An incident report shouldn’t be made part of the patient’s record but is an in-house document for the purpose of correcting the problem. Fundamentals of Nursing Critical pathways are a multidisciplinary guideline for patient care. Fundamentals of Nursing When prioritizing nursing diagnoses, use this hierarchy: (1) problems associated with airway, (2) those concerning breathing, and (3) those related to circulation. Fundamentals of Nursing The two nursing diagnoses with the highest priority that the nurse can assign are Ineffective airway clearance and Ineffective breathing pattern. Fundamentals of Nursing A subjective sign that a sitz bath has been effective is that patient expresses a decrease in pain or discomfort. Fundamentals of Nursing For the nursing diagnosis Diversional activity deficit to be valid, the patient must make the statement that he’s “bored, there is nothing to do” or words to that effect. Fundamentals of Nursing The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for an individual who doesn’t speak English is Communication, impaired, related to inability to speak dominant language (English). Fundamentals of Nursing The family of the patient who has been diagnosed as hearing impaired should be instructed to face the individual when they speak to him. Fundamentals of Nursing Up to age 3, the pinna should be pulled down and back to straighten the eustachian tube before instilling medication. Fundamentals of Nursing When administering eyedrops, the nurse should waste the first drop and instill the medication in the lower conjunctival sac to prevent injury to the cornea. Fundamentals of Nursing When administering eye ointment, the nurse should waste the first bead of medication and then apply the medication from the inner to the outer canthus. Fundamentals of Nursing When removing gloves and mask, the gloves, which most likely contain pathogens and are soiled, should be removed first. Fundamentals of Nursing Crutches should placed 6" (15 cm) in front of the patient and 6" to the side to assume a tripod position. Fundamentals of Nursing Listening is the most effective communication technique. Fundamentals of Nursing Process recording is a method of evaluating one’s communication effectiveness. Fundamentals of Nursing When feeding the elderly, limit high-carbohydrate foods because of the risk of glucose intolerance. Fundamentals of Nursing Passive range of motion maintains joint mobility whereas resistive exercises increase muscle mass. Fundamentals of Nursing Isometric exercises are performed on an extremity in a cast. Fundamentals of Nursing A back rub is an example of the gate-control theory of pain. Fundamentals of Nursing Anything below the waist is considered unsterile, a sterile field becomes unsterile when it comes in contact with nay unsterile item, a sterile field must be continuously monitored, and the 1" (2.5 cm) border around a sterile field is considered unsterile. Fundamentals of Nursing A “shift to the left” is evident when there is an increase in immature cells (bands) in the blood to fight an infection. Fundamentals of Nursing A “shift to the right” is evident when there is an increase in mature cells in the blood as seen in advanced liver diseases and pernicious anemia. Fundamentals of Nursing Before administering preoperative medication, make sure that an informed consent form has been signed and attached to the patient’s record. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should spend no more than 30 minutes per 8-hour shift in providing care to the patient with a radiation implant. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should stand near the patient’s shoulders for cervical implants and at the foot of the bed for head and neck implants. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should never be assigned to care for more than one patient with radiation implants. Fundamentals of Nursing Long-handled forceps and a lead-lined container should be in the room of the patient who has a radiation implant. Fundamentals of Nursing Generally, patients who have the same infection and are in strict isolation can share the same room. Fundamentals of Nursing Diseases requiring strict isolation include chickenpox, diphtheria, and viral hemorrhagic fever such as Marburg virus disease. Fundamentals of Nursing For the patient abiding by Jewish custom, milk and meat shouldn’t be served in the same meal. Fundamentals of Nursing Whether the patient can perform a procedure (psychomotor domain of learning) is a better indicator of the effectiveness of patient teaching than whether the patient can simply state the steps of the procedure (cognitive domain of learning). Fundamentals of Nursing Developmental stages according to Erik Erikson are trust versus mistrust (birth to 18 months), autonomy versus shame and doubt (18 months to 3 years), initiative versus guilt (3 to 5 years), industry versus inferiority (5 to 12 years), identity versus identity diffusion (12 to 18 years), intimacy versus isolation (18 to 25 years), generativity versus stagnation (25 to 60 years), and ego integrity versus despair (older than 60 years). Fundamentals of Nursing Face the hearing impaired patient when communicating with him. Fundamentals of Nursing A proper nursing intervention for the spouse of the patient who has suffered a serious incapacitating disease is to assist him in mobilizing a support system. Fundamentals of Nursing Hyperpyrexia refers to extreme elevation in temperature above 106º F (41.1º C). Fundamentals of Nursing
Showing posts with label Pediatrics Nursing. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Pediatrics Nursing. Show all posts

DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES

One month
lifts head intermittently when prone
momentary visual fixation on human faces and objects
Two months
“social smile”
responds to familiar voices by moving the whole body
no head control yet; head lags when pulled to sitting
(Implication: support head and neck when carrying the baby).
Sheds tears
Three months
can raise head, but not chest, when on prone
head in bobbing motion; some head control when pulled to sit
babbles and coes
Four months
grasps objects within reach and brings to mouth
(Implication: diaper pins, clips, etc. should be kept out of reach)
head control when pulled to sit, no lag, head steady when upright
laughs aloud
Five months
rolls over
(Implication: raise side rails of cribs to prevent accidental falls).
raking grasp
Six months
doubles birth weight
eruption of first tooth (usually lower central incisor)
sits with minimal support
can be pulled from sitting to standing position
Seven months
plays with feet
says “dada” or “mama” but not specific
pivots (creeps) when on prone (Implication: keeps rails on stairs secured).
thumb-finger grasp
Eight months
sits alone steadily without support for an indefinite period
Nine months
can hold bottle with good hand-mouth coordination
crawls
understands simple gestures and requests (e.g. bye-bye)
takes some steps when held
neat pincer grasp
Ten months
pulls self to stand
responds to own name
Eleven months
stands with assistance
attempts to walk with help
Twelve months
walks with help
triples birth weight
drinks from a cup
can say 2 words
Three years of age
pedals a bike
walks backwards
climbs stairs
uses scissors
helps dress himself
Four years of age
climbs and jumps well
uses alternate steps when climbing stairs
throws ball overhand
brushes teeth
Five years of age
runs and hops well; jumps rope
skips; balances on 1 foot 8 seconds
ties shoelaces
Seven years of age
appearance of first molars and lateral incisors
visual acuity is 20/20
withdrawn and moody, likes to be alone watching tv or listening to the radio
is seldom able to complete a task
psychosomatic illnesses may be common
Eight years of age
with 10-11 permanent teeth
onset of secondary sexual characteristics
prefers playmates of own sex
are dogmatic and self-righteous
collecting stamps, etc. is a favorite hobby
Nine years of age
more interested in friends than in family
lying and stealing may become problems
try become parent of the same sex
worry and complain a great deal
Ten years of age
cooperative and affectionate
are peer-oriented
with secret language
companionship is more important than play
Eleven years of age
are critical of adults
beginning hero-worship
moody and with beginning interest in the opposite sex

Pediatric Drill 10

1.) Which achievement best characterizes the physical development of a 3-month-old infant?
A.) A strong Moro reflex
B.) A strong tonic-neck reflex
C.) The ability to roll over intentionally
D.) The ability to lift the head and chest from a prone position

2.) Birth weight typically triples by the end of the first
A.) 4 months
B.) 6 months
C.) 8 months
D.) 12 months

3.) Which statements best characterizes the normal state of mutuality between an infant and his primary caregiver during the first few months?
A.) The caregiver immediately responds to the infant’s cries
B.) The caregiver understand the infant’s distress signals
C.) The infant learns that the caregiver will feed him when he is hungry and reposition him when he is restless
D.) The caregiver recognizes the infant’s signal for restlessness, and the infant quiets when the caregiver repositions him

4.) At which age does an infant learn to distinguish himself from his caregivers?
A.) 3 moths
B.) 6 months
C.) 9 months
D.) 12 months

5.) Which behavior indicates that an infant distinguishes himself from his primary caregiver?
A.) Smiling at his caregiver
B.) Putting his fingers in his caregiver’s mouth
C.) Crying when his caregiver leaves
D.) Crawling away from his caregiver


6.) By which age can most children wash their hands and brush their teeth with only minimal supervision
A.) Age 2
B.) Age 3
C.) Age 6
D.) Age 8

7.) Which situation best demonstrates the parallel play typical of toddlers?
A.) Two toddlers sharing crayons to color separate pictures
B.) Two toddlers playing a board game with the play therapist
C.) Two toddlers seated next to each other playing with separate dolls
D.) A toddler seated on the play therapist’s lap playing with a music box

8.) Which toy would be most appropriate for a 3-month-old infant?
A.) A soft cube with different textures on each side
B.) A picture book of baby animals
C.) An activity box placed in the infant’s crib
D.) A set of wooden blocks

9.) Which toy would be most appropriate for a 2-year-old-child
A.) A bicycle with training wheels
B.) A pull toy that makes noise
C.) A miniature car or truck
D.) A 10-piece wooden puzzle

10.) Which question effectively elicits information about a caregiver’s knowledge of toilet training?
A.) “Have you had any experience with toilet training?”
B.) “Has your child shown any interest in toilet training?”
C.) “What do you know about toilet training?”
D.) “Why do you want to toilet train your child?”

11.) All of the following statements about toilet training are true except:
A.) The child should be given detailed instructions and explanations about elimination
B.) Toilet-training sessions should last no longer than 10 minutes
C.) Using negative control may hinder toilet training
D.) placing a stool below the toilet serves as a footrest and provides greater stability for the child

12.) Which of the following is the normal order of sexual maturity in girls?
A.) Appearance of pubic hair, menarche, breast enlargement
B.) Menarche, breast enlargement, appearance of pubic hair, menarche
C.) Breast enlargement, appearance of pubic hair, menarche
D.) Appearance of pubic hair, breast enlargement, menarche

13.) The first sign of sexual development in boys usually is:
A.) Growth of pubic hair
B.) Testicular enlargement
C.) Nocturnal emissions
D.) Deepening voice

14.) Piaget’s sensorimotor stage is characterized by all of the following except:
A.) Reflexive behavior
B.) Intentional reaching or grasping for an object
C.) Habitual repetitive behavior
D.) Regarding inanimate objects as alive

15.) Menarche usually occurs:
A.) At the onset of puberty
B.) In Tanner’s stage II
C.) In Tanner’s stage IV
D.) At the onset of senescence

16.) Tanner’s stage I of male sexual maturation is characterized by:
A.) Increased testicular size
B.) Onset of penile growth and pubic hair development
C.) Increased genital development and increased growth of pubic and axillary hair
D.) Fully mature genitalia and pubic hair

17.) Receptive language problems’ are associated with
A.) Poor grammar
B.) Speech pattern or sound alterations
C.) Environmental deprivation
D.) Problems with decoding

18.) The inability to process symbols and abstract ideas results from:
A.) Aphasia
B.) Articulation errors
C.) Dysfluency
D.) Voice rhythm disorder

19.) Stuttering is the most common form of
A.) Articulation error
B.) Dysfluency
C.) Voice disorder
D.) Decoding problems

20.) All of the following are classic signs of hearing impairment in infants and young children except:
A.) Unresponsiveness to noise or simple oral commands
B.) Gesturing rather than speaking
C.) Continuing babbling
D.) Avoidance of social interaction
21).Which achievement best characterizes the physical development of a 3-month-old infant?

A.) A strong Moro reflex
B.) A strong tonic-neck reflex
C.) The ability to roll over intentionally
D.) The ability to lift the head and chest from a prone position

22.) Birth weight typically triples by the end of the first

A.) 4 months
B.) 6 months
C.) 8 months
D.) 12 months

23.) Which statements best characterizes the normal state of mutuality between an infant and his primary caregiver during the first few months?

A.) The caregiver immediately responds to the infant’s cries
B.) The caregiver understand the infant’s distress signals
C.) The infant learns that the caregiver will feed him when he is hungry and reposition him when he is restless
D.) The caregiver recognizes the infant’s signal for restlessness, and the infant quiets when the caregiver repositions him

24.) At which age does an infant learn to distinguish himself from his caregivers?

A.) 3 moths
B.) 6 months
C.) 9 months
D.) 12 months

25.) Which behavior indicates that an infant distinguishes himself from his primary caregiver?

A.) Smiling at his caregiver
B.) Putting his fingers in his caregiver’s mouth
C.) Crying when his caregiver leaves
D.) Crawling away from his caregiver

26.) By which age can most children wash their hands and brush their teeth with only minimal supervision

A.) Age 2
B.) Age 3
C.) Age 6
D.) Age 8

27.) Which situation best demonstrates the parallel play typical of toddlers?

A.) Two toddlers sharing crayons to color separate pictures
B.) Two toddlers playing a board game with the play therapist
C.) Two toddlers seated next to each other playing with separate dolls
D.) A toddler seated on the play therapist’s lap playing with a music box

28.) Which toy would be most appropriate for a 3-month-old infant?

A.) A soft cube with different textures on each side
B.) A picture book of baby animals
C.) An activity box placed in the infant’s crib
D.) A set of wooden blocks

29.) Which toy would be most appropriate for a 2-year-old-child

A.) A bicycle with training wheels
B.) A pull toy that makes noise
C.) A miniature car or truck
D.) A 10-piece wooden puzzle

30.) Which question effectively elicits information about a caregiver’s knowledge of toilet training?

A.) “Have you had any experience with toilet training?”
B.) “Has your child shown any interest in toilet training?”
C.) “What do you know about toilet training?”
D.) “Why do you want to toilet train your child?”

31.) All of the following statements about toilet training are true except:

A.) The child should be given detailed instructions and explanations about elimination
B.) Toilet-training sessions should last no longer than 10 minutes
C.) Using negative control may hinder toilet training
D.) placing a stool below the toilet serves as a footrest and provides greater stability for the child


32.) Which of the following is the normal order of sexual maturity in girls?

A.) Appearance of pubic hair, menarche, breast enlargement
B.) Menarche, breast enlargement, appearance of pubic hair, menarche
C.) Breast enlargement, appearance of pubic hair, menarche
D.) Appearance of pubic hair, breast enlargement, menarche

33.) The first sign of sexual development in boys usually is:

A.) Growth of pubic hair
B.) Testicular enlargement
C.) Nocturnal emissions
D.) Deepening voice

34.) Piaget’s sensorimotor stage is characterized by all of the following except:

A.) Reflexive behavior
B.) Intentional reaching or grasping for an object
C.) Habitual repeatitive behavior
D.) Regarding inanimate objects as alive

55.) Menarche usually occurs:

A.) At the onset of puberty
B.) In Tanner’s stage II
C.) In Tanner’s stage IV
D.) At the onset of senescence

36.) Tanner’s stage I of male sexual maturation is characterized by:
A.) Increased testicular size
B.) Onset of penile growth and pubic hair development
C.) Increased genital development and increased growth of pubic and axillary hair
D.) Fully mature genitalia and pubic hair

38.) The inability to process symbols and abstract ideas results from:

A.) Aphasia
B.) Articulation errors
C.) Dysfluency
D.) Voice rhythm disorder

39.) Stuttering is the most common form of

A.) Articulation error
B.) Dysfluency
C.) Voice disorder
D.) Decoding problems

40.) All of the following are classic signs of hearing impairment in infants and young children except:

A.) Unresponsiveness to noise or simple oral commands
B.) Gesturing rather than speaking
C.) Continuing babbling
D.) Avoidance of social interaction

Answers

Pediatric Drill 9

Question 1Which of the following should the nurse do next after noting that an 8-month-old child's posterior fontanel is slightly open?

1. Check the child's head circumference
2. Document this as a normal finding
3. Question the mother about the child's delivery
4. Schedule an x-ray of the child's head

Question 2. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would the nurse identify as the priority for a 4-month-old infant with heart failure and congenital heart disease?

1. Activity Intolerance
2. Risk for Infection
3. Impaired Mobility
4. Ineffective Health Maintenance

Question 3. When developing a plan of care that includes interventions aimed at preventing complications of a low platelet count in a child with leukemia, which of the following is most appropriate?

1. Consulting with a physician about the use of a stool softener
2. Placing the child in protective isolation
3. Using heparin instead of saline to flush an intermittent IV access device
4. Eliminating raw vegetables and fruits from the child's diet

Question 4. The nurse teaches the parent about the normal reaction that an infant may experience 12 to 24 hours after DTaP immunization. The nurse determines that the teaching is effective when the parent asks which of the following?

1. "Will the lethargy make it harder to breast-feed?"
2. "How much acetaminophen (Tylenol) can I give for the fever?"
3. "Can you give loperamide (Imodium) to an infant?"
4. "What kind of nose spray can I use for the baby's congestion?"

Question 5. Which of the following would indicate effective therapy in a neonate born at 38 weeks gestation and given oxygen as a treatment for cold stress?

1. Heart rate is 200 bpm at rest
2. Respiratory rate is 48 breaths/minute at rest
3. Axillary temperature is 98 c
4. Blood pressure is 56/30 mm Hg

Question 6. After uncomplicated abdominal surgery, which of the following would be most appropriate when determining if an alert school-aged child is ready to drink oral fluids?

1. Ask if the child wants something to drink
2. Auscultate the child's abdomen for bowel sounds
3. Determine that the child has a gag reflex
4. Palpate the epigastric area for discomfort

Question 7. A young child who has undergone a tonsillectomy refuses to let the nurse look at the tonsillar beds to check for bleeding. To assess whether the child is bleeding from the tonsillar beds, which of the following would be most appropriate?

1. Assess capillary refill
2. Force open the mouth with a tongue blade
3. Monitor for decreased blood pressure
4. Observe for frequent swallowing

Question 8. Which of the following interventions would be included in the plan of care for the child with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis to reduce joint pain in the morning just after arising?

1. Having the child sleep in a sleeping bag
2. Increasing pain medication at bedtime
3. Having the child sleep with the joints flexed
4. Awakening the child once nightly to exercise the joints

Question 9. A mother brings her 18-month-old child to the clinic because the child "eats ashes, crayons, and paper." Which of the following information would be most important to obtain first about this toddler?

1. Currently cutting large teeth
2. Experiencing a growth spurt
3. Experiencing changes in the home environment
4. Eating a soft, low-roughage diet

Question 10. While examining a 12-month-old child, the nurse notes that the child can stand independently but cannot walk without support. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate?

1. Ask the mother if the child uses a walker at home
2. Do nothing because this is a normal finding in a child this age
3. Initiate a consultation with a developmental specialist
4. Tell the mother that the child may have a developmental delay

Question 11. Which of the following laboratory values would the nurse interpret as associated with cold stress in a 1-day-old preterm neonate?

1. Bilirubin level of 13 mg/dL
2. Glucose level of 15 mg/dL
3. Hematocrit of 65%
4. Hemoglobin level of 23.5 g/dL

Question 12. An 18-month-old child with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is seen in the clinic for health maintenance. Which of the following vaccines would the nurse anticipate administering to this toddler?

1. Diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis
2. Varicella
3. Measles, mumps, and rubella
4. Hemophilus influenza

Question 13. A 2-month-old child returns from a cardiac catheterization. The child's fontanel is flat. The diaper is dry. The respiratory rate is 20 breaths/minute and breath sounds are decreased bilaterally. The child is limp although she moves all extremities when stimulated. The dressing over the insertion site is intact, clean, and dry. The pedal pulses are palpable bilaterally and equal to the heart rate. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be most appropriate?

1. Ineffective Tissue Perfusion related to thrombus formation
2. Deficit Fluid Volume related to inability to take in fluids
3. Risk for Injury related to disruption of vessel integrity
4. Ineffective Breathing Pattern related to sedation

Question 14. Which of the following would the nurse most likely assess in a child who has sustained full-thickness burns?

1. Blanching to the touch
2. Excessive bleeding
3. Minimal complaints of pain
4. Blistering, moist appearance

Question 15. Which of the following would be the priority nursing diagnosis for a 4-week-old infant with a diagnosis of pyloric stenosis?

1. Constipation
2. Deficient Fluid Volume
3. Imbalanced Nutrition, less than body requirements
4. Impaired Swallowing

Question 16. Immediately after the return of an 18-month-old child to his room following insertion of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt, which of the following would the nurse do first?

1. Ask the child to state his name and where he is
2. Palpate his anterior fontanel
3. Position him on the side opposite the shunt site
4. Check his pupil size and reactivity to light

Question 17. When performing a physical assessment on an 18-month-old child, which of the following would be best?

1. Have the mother hold the toddler on her lap
2. Assess the respiratory and cardiac systems first
3. Carry out the assessment from head to toe
4. Assess motor function by having the child run and walk


Question 18. At 3 AM, the mother of a 3-year-old child calls the emergency room nurse and reports the child has a temperature of 101.1 degreess f, a runny nose, and a barky cough that "gets going and won't stop." The mother states that she just gave the child acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which of the following should the nurse recommend next?

1. Sitting with the child in a steamy warm bathroom
2. Running a steam vaporizer near the child's bedside
3. Giving the child an over-the-counter decongestant
4. Administering aspirin in 2 hours

Question 19. When developing a seminar on injury prevention to be presented to a group of parents of children from 2 to 18 years, the nurse would place the first priority on discussing the use of which of the following?

1. Child restraints in automobiles
2. Helmets for biking and skating
3. Special locks for cabinets
4. Topical bug repellent in summer

Question 20. The mother of a 9-month-old infant asks about adding new foods to his diet. The child is being breast-fed and takes formula and cereal when at the sitter's. Which of the following would the nurse instruct the mother to do?

1. Mix new foods with formula or breast milk
2. Mix new foods with more familiar foods
3. Offer new foods one at a time
4. Offer new foods after giving formula or breast milk

Question 21. After the nurse instructs the parents of a 5-month-old infant about the purpose of the Denver Developmental Screening Test (DDST), which of the following statements by the parents about what the test measures would indicate that the teaching was effective?

1. Intelligence quotient
2. Emotional development
3. Social and physical abilities
4. Potential for future development

Question 22. Which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect that a neonate with an infection is developing septic shock?

1. Axillary temperature is 99.8 c
2. Blood pressure is 45/25 mm Hg
3. Heart rate during sleep is 205 bpm
4. Respiratory rate while awake is 32 breaths/minute

Question 23. The mother says that the infant's physician recommends certain foods, but the infant refuses to eat them after breast-feeding. The nurse should suggest that the mother alter the feeding plan by doing which of the following?

1. Offering dessert followed by some vegetables and meat
2. Offering breast milk as long as the infant refuses to eat solid foods
3. Mixing pureed food with some breast milk in a bottle with a large-holed nipple
4. Allowing the infant to nurse for a few minutes then offering solid foods

Question 24. The parents express concern about the condition of their premature neonate. To meet the short-term goals of decreasing the parents' fears and fostering bonding, which of the following would the nurse include in the plan of care?

1. Allowing the parents to see and touch their neonate
2. Arranging for a visit with another couple who have an ill preterm neonate
3. Encouraging the parents to participate in the neonate's care
4. Telling the parents not to worry because the neonate is doing well

Question 25. After resuming feedings in an infant who has undergone a pyloroplasty, which of the following would be most appropriate?

1. Keeping the head of the bed flat with the infant lying supine
2. Offering several ounces of an oral electrolyte solution initially
3. Placing the infant in a prone position after each feeding
4. Starting feedings with 5 to 10 mL, slowly increasing amounts as tolerated

Question 26. After teaching the parents of a 15-month-old child who has undergone cleft palate repair how to use elbow restraints, which of the following statements by the parents indicates effective teaching?

1. "We'll keep the restraints in place continuously until the doctor says it's okay to remove them."
2. "We can take off the restraints while our child is playing but we'll make sure to put them back on at night."
3. "The restraints should be taped directly to our child's arms so that they will stay in one place."
4. "We'll remove the restraints temporarily at least three times a day to check his skin then put them right back on."

Question 27. Which of the following methods for checking placement of a gavage feeding catheter would be most appropriate after introducing the catheter into the neonate's stomach?

1. Aspirating stomach contents through the catheter with a syringe
2. Auscultating clear breath sounds after instilling a small amount of air into the catheter
3. Aspirating water back into a syringe after introducing it into the catheter
4. Flushing the catheter with a small amount of water

Question 28. On observing a parent propping a bottle for a 2-month-old child in the waiting room, the nurse explains the dangers of this to the parent. Which of the following statements indicates that the parent has understood the nurse's teaching?

1. "I didn't know it would cause my baby to gain too much weight."
2. "I can see how it might cause choking, but how does it cause dental caries?"
3. "So, because I prop the bottle, I might have trouble weaning the child?"
4. "I will stop propping the bottle so my child will sleep through the night."

Question 29. A preschool client immobilized in a spica cast complains of having trouble breathing after meals. Which of the following actions would be best?

1. Encourage the client to drink more between meals
2. Teach the child pursed-lip breathing
3. Give the client a laxative after meals
4. Offer the client small feedings several times a day

Question 30. When determining the effectiveness of teaching a child's mother about sickle cell disease, which of the following statements by the mother indicates the need for additional teaching?

1. "I've started to give him some extra fluids with and between meals."
2. "I'm concerned about how the hospital staff will manage his pain."
3. "He's going to be playing on a soccer team when he's feeling better."
4. "I've told the child's father that both he and I are carriers of the disease."

Question 31. After the nurse has taught the parents of a 5-year-old boy who has leukemia how to talk with their child about death and dying, which of the following would indicate that the parents have age-appropriate expectations about their child's reaction to his impending death?

1. "He is too young to understand what is happening to him."
2. "He might think he can cause his death because he has misbehaved."
3. "He will accept his death as caused by his disease."
4. "He will understand how much his siblings will miss him."

Question 32. When preparing to conduct prenatal and parenting classes for a group of parents, the clinic's nursing staff will be providing childcare for the parents' children who range in age from 13 months to 6 years. The clinic has a playroom. Which of the following activities would be most appropriate to include?

1. Free play with adult supervision
2. A group sing-along
3. Drawing and painting projects
4. Viewing cartoon videos

Question 33. When completing an assessment of a healthy adolescent client, which of the following would be most appropriate?

1. Obtain a detailed account of the adolescent's prenatal and early developmental history
2. Discuss sexual preferences and behaviors with the parents present for legal reasons
3. Discuss the client's smoking with parents present in the room
4. Assess the adolescent in private; gather additional information from the parents

Question 34. When discussing a 7-month-old infant's motor skill development with the mother, the nurse should explain that by age 7 months, an infant most likely will be able to do which of the following?

1. Walk with one hand held
2. Eat successfully with a spoon
3. Stand while holding onto furniture
4. Sit alone using the hands for support

Question 35. When planning a screening clinic for scoliosis, the nurse would anticipate targeting which of the following groups?

1. Preadolescents at the beginning of a growth spurt
2. Toddlers who have diets low in calcium and vitamin D
3. Preschoolers who are entering kindergarten
4. Infants whose mothers have had no prenatal care

Question 36. When assessing a 6-month-old child with a large ventricular septal defect, the nurse notices that the child has gained 5 pounds in 1 month. The mother reports that the child has not been wetting many diapers in the last week, although the child is taking the prescribed amounts of formula. "I think it is because he seems to sweat so much." Auscultation of the lung fields reveals fine crackles in the bases. The child's digoxin level is 1 mg/mL. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be most appropriate?

1. Imbalanced Nutrition: More Than Body Requirements
2. Excess Fluid Volume
3. Risk for Injury
4. Urinary Retention

Question 37. Assessment of a child with rheumatic fever reveals chorea. Which of the following would the nurse consider to be most important?

1. Explain to the child and family that the chorea will disappear over time
2. Institute measures to keep the child in a warm environment
3. Perform neurologic checks every 4 hours until the chorea subsides
4. Promote ambulation by giving aspirin every 4 hours

Question 38. The mother of a 15-month-old child who is coughing and having trouble breathing telephones the clinic to ask advice because she suspects that her child has croup. Which of the following instructions would be most appropriate?

1. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours
2. Take the child into the bathroom and run the hot water
3. Give over-the-counter cough syrup every 6 hours
4. Get the child to take as much fluid as possible

Question 39. The mother of an infant with a congenital heart defect involving decreased pulmonary blood flow tells the nurse that her child has not been gaining weight even with an increased-calorie formula. The mother states that the infant starts out with a good suck but tires and quits after 2 ounces. The infant is receiving oxygen through a nasal cannula as necessary and is on digoxin therapy. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to the mother?

1. Cut a large hole in the nipple
2. Feed the infant every 2 hours
3. Have the infant tested for digoxin toxicity
4. Increase the oxygen for feedings

Question 40. The mother of an 8-year-old child with a fluid restriction of 1000 mL/day is staying with the child in the room. Which of the following would be most appropriate for the nurse to include in the child's plan of care?

1. Discussing the fluid restriction with the mother and child, allowing them to decide how to allocate the fluids over the 24 hours
2. Explaining to the mother that hospital personnel will assume the responsibility for providing fluids to the child.
3. Letting the child drink fluid until the limit is reached and then allowing the child to drink no more fluids
4. Telling the mother exactly how much fluid the child can have each hour, showing her examples of the amount

Question 41. A mother asks the nurse when she should wean her 4-month-old infant from breast-feeding and begin using a cup. Which of the following would the nurse explain as the best indication of the infant's readiness to be weaned?

1. Taking solid foods well
2. Sleeping through the night
3. Shortening the nursing time
4. Eating on a regular schedule

Question 42. A 10-day-old neonate brought to the clinic by the parents is lethargic and tachypneic with a heart rate of 200 bpm. Which of the following would be the nurse's primary focus initially?

1. Temperature pattern over the last few days
2. Number of wet diapers in the past 24 hours
3. Pupillary response now and 30 minutes later
4. Sleep patterns over the past week

Question 43. The physician orders eye patching for a child with strabismus. Which of the following statements by the child's mother would indicate the need for additional teaching about this treatment?

1. "You see, his problem eye is patched."
2. "I keep the patch on even when he fusses."
3. "I have to watch him when he walks because he is clumsy."
4. "I take the patch off at night when he goes to bed."


Question 44. A mother of an ill child is concerned because the child "isn't eating well." Which of the following strategies devised by the mother to help increase the child's intake should the nurse advise against using?

1. Allowing the child to choose his meals from an acceptable list of foods
2. Letting the child substitute items on his tray for other nutritious foods
3. Asking the child to say why he is not eating
4. Telling the child he must eat or else he will not get better

Question 45. Initial nursing interventions for a child admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of meningitis due to H. influenzae should include which of the following?

1. Keeping the child well hydrated
2. Maintaining a quiet, cool environment
3. Keeping the child positioned flat in the bed
4. Placing the child on airborne precautions

Question 46. A 23-month-old child pulled a pan of hot water off the stove and spilled it onto her chest and arms. Her mother was right there when it happened. Which of the following should the mother have done immediately?

1. Apply ice directly to the burned areas
2. Place the child in the bathtub of cool water
3. Apply antibiotic ointment to the burned areas
4. Call the neighbor to come over and help her

Question 47. Parents ask for advice about handling their 2-year-old's negativism. Which of the following would be the best recommendation?

1. Ignore this behavior because it is a stage the child is going through
2. Set realistic limits for the child, then be sure to stick to them
3. Encourage the grandmother to visit frequently to relieve them
4. Punish the child for misbehaving or violating set, strict limits

Question 48. When preparing to give a neonate the first feeding by nipple, for which of the following reasons would the nurse anticipate using a 5 mL feeding of sterile water first?

1. Ascertain the patency of the neonate's esophagus
2. Determine if the neonate can retain the feeding
3. Ensure that the neonate has the energy to take oral feedings
4. Ensure that the mother will be able to feed the neonate

Question 49. Which of the following would the nurse include in the plan of care for a child with a fracture in skeletal traction to prevent osteomyelitis?

1. Encouraging the child to eat nutritious foods
2. Administering prophylactic antibiotics as ordered
3. Maintaining the child in reverse isolation
4. Protecting the child from visitors with colds

Question 50. A nurse working in a neonatal intensive care unit is developing infection control policies. Which of the following policies would the nurse expect to include as the single most effective means of preventing the spread of infection?

1. Having everyone coming in contact with neonates perform frequent hand and arm washing.
2. Keeping each neonate in an isolation incubator that is opened as infrequently as possible
3. Maintaining a ventilation system in the unit that provides for continuous clean-air exchange
4. Requiring everyone who comes in contact with neonates to wear gowns and masks


ANSWERS

Pediatric Drill 8

Question 1. A 4 year-old child is recovering from chicken pox (varicella). The parents would like to have the child return to day care as soon as possible. In order to ensure that the illness is no longer communicable, what should the nurse assess for in this child?

1. All lesions crusted
2. Elevated temperature
3. Rhinorrhea and coryza
4. Presence of vesicles

Question 2. A nurse is doing preconceptual counseling with a woman who is planning a pregnancy. Which of the following statements suggests that the client understands the connection between alcohol consumption and fetal alcohol syndrome?

1. "I understand that a glass of wine with dinner is healthy."
2. "Beer is not really hard alcohol, so I guess I can drink some."
3. "If I drink, my baby may be harmed before I know I am pregnant."
4. "Drinking with meals reduces the effects of alcohol."

Question 3. The school nurse suspects that a third grade child might have Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder. Prior to referring the child for further evaluation, the nurse should

1. Observe the child's behavior on at least 2 occasions
2. Consult with the teacher about how to control impulsivity
3. Compile a history of behavior patterns and developmental accomplishments
4. Compare the child's behavior with classic signs and symptoms
Looking for answers(s):3

Question 4. In evaluating the growth of a 12 month-old child, which of these findings would the nurse expect to be present in the infant?

1. Increased 10% in height
2. 2 deciduous teeth
3. Tripled the birth weight
4. Head > chest circumference

Question 5. A mother asks about expected motor skills for a 3 year-old child. Which of the following would the nurse emphasize as normal at this age?

1. Jumping rope
2. Tying shoelaces
3. Riding a tricycle
4. Playing hopscotch

Question 6. A nurse arranges for a interpreter to facilitate communication between the health care team and a non-English speaking client. To promote therapeutic communication, the appropriate action for the nurse to remember when working with an interpreter is to

1. Promote verbal and nonverbal communication with both the client and the interpreter
2. Speak only a few sentences at a time and then pause for a few moments
3. Plan that the encounter will take more time than if the client spoke English
4. Ask the client to speak slowly and to look at the person spoken to

Question 7. The nurse is assigned to care for a client newly diagnosed with angina. As part of discharge teaching, it is important to remind the client to remove the nitroglycerine patch after 12 hours in order to prevent what condition?


1. Skin irritation
2. Drug tolerance
3. Severe headaches
4. Postural hypotension

Question 8. Which of these parents’ comment for a newborn would most likely reveal an initial finding of a suspected pyloric stenosis?

1. I noticed a little lump a little above the belly button.
2. The baby seems hungry all the time.
3. Mild vomiting that progressed to vomiting shooting across the room.
4. Irritation and spitting up immediately after feedings.

Question 9. A postpartum mother is unwilling to allow the father to participate in the newborn's care, although he is interested in doing so. She states, "I am afraid the baby will be confused about who the mother is. Baby raising is for mothers, not fathers." The nurse's initial intervention should be what focus?

1. Discuss with the mother sharing parenting responsibilities
2. Set time aside to get the mother to express her feelings and concerns
3. Arrange for the parents to attend infant care classes
4. Talk with the father and help him accept the wife's decision

Question 10. A client who has been drinking for five years states that he drinks when he gets upset about "things" such as being unemployed or feeling like life is not leading anywhere. The nurse understands that the client is using alcohol as a way to deal with

1. Recreational and social needs
2. Feelings of anger
3. Life’s stressors
4. Issues of guilt and disappointment

Question 11. A nurse aide is taking care of a 2 year-old child with Wilm's tumor. The nurse aide asks the nurse why there is a sign above the bed that says DO NOT PALPATE THE ABDOMEN? The best response by the nurse would be which of these statements?

1. "Touching the abdomen could cause cancer cells to spread."
2. "Examining the area would cause difficulty to the child."
3. "Pushing on the stomach might lead to the spread of infection."
4. "Placing any pressure on the abdomen may cause an abnormal experience."

Question 12. The nurse is teaching diet restrictions for a client with Addison's disease. The client would indicate an understanding of the diet by stating

1. "I will increase sodium and fluids and restrict potassium."
2. "I will increase potassium and sodium and restrict fluids."
3. "I will increase sodium, potassium and fluids."
4. "I will increase fluids and restrict sodium and potassium."

Question 13. The father of an 8 month-old infant asks the nurse if his infant's vocalizations are normal for his age. Which of the following would the nurse expect at this age?
1. Cooing
2. Imitation of sounds
3. Throaty sounds
4. Laughter

Question 14. A diabetic client asks the nurse why the health care provider ordered a glycolsylated hemoglobin (HbA) measurement, since a blood glucose reading was just performed. You will explain to the client that the HbA test:

1. Provides a more precise blood glucose value than self-monitoring
2. Is performed to detect complications of diabetes
3. Measures circulating levels of insulin
4. Reflects an average blood sugar for several months

Question 15. The nurse is planning to give a 3 year-old child oral digoxin. Which of the following is the best approach by the nurse?

1. "Do you want to take this pretty red medicine?"
2. "You will feel better if you take your medicine."
3. "This is your medicine, and you must take it all right now."
4. "Would you like to take your medicine from a spoon or a cup?"

Question 16. The nurse is caring for a client with a deep vein thrombosis. Which finding would require the nurse's immediate attention?

1. Temperature of 102 degrees Fahrenheit
2. Pulse rate of 98 beats per minute
3. Respiratory rate of 32
4. Blood pressure of 90/50

Question 17. What is the major developmental task that the mother must accomplish during the first trimester of pregnancy?

1. Acceptance of the pregnancy
2. Acceptance of the termination of the pregnancy
3. Acceptance of the fetus as a separate and unique being
4. Satisfactory resolution of fears related to giving birth

Question 18. The nurse would expect the cystic fibrosis client to receive supplemental pancreatic enzymes along with a diet

1. High in carbohydrates and proteins
2. Low in carbohydrates and proteins
3. High in carbohydrates, low in proteins
4. Low in carbohydrates, high in proteins

Question 19. The nurse enters a 2 year-old child's hospital room in order to administer an oral medication. When the child is asked if he is ready to take his medicine, he immediately says, "No!". What would be the most appropriate next action?

1. Leave the room and return five minutes later and give the medicine
2. Explain to the child that the medicine must be taken now
3. Give the medication to the father and ask him to give it
4. Mix the medication with ice cream or applesauce

Question 20. An eighteen month-old has been brought to the emergency room with irritability, lethargy over 2 days, dry skin and increased pulse. Based upon the evaluation of these initial findings, the nurse would assess the child for additional findings of

1. Septicemia
2. Dehydration
3. Hypokalemia
4. Hypercalcemia

Question 21. The nurse is planning care for a 2 year-old hospitalized child. Which of the following will produces the most stress at this age?

1. Separation anxiety
2. Fear of pain
3. Loss of control
4. Bodily injury

Question 22. A recovering alcoholic asked the nurse, "Will it be ok for me to just drink at special family gatherings?" Which initial response by the nurse would be best?

1. "A recovering person has to be very careful not to lose control, therefore, confine your drinking just at family gatherings."
2. "At your next AA meeting discuss the possibility of limited drinking with your sponsor."
3. "A recovering person needs to get in touch with their feelings. Do you want a drink?"
4. "A recovering person cannot return to drinking without starting the addiction process over."

Question 23. The nurse is assigned to a client who has heart failure . During the morning rounds the nurse sees the client develop sudden anxiety, diaphoresis and dyspnea. The nurse auscultates, crackles bilaterally. Which nursing intervention should be performed first?

1. Take the client's vital signs
2. Place the client in a sitting position with legs dangling
3. Contact the health care provider
4. Administer the PRN antianxiety agent

Question 24. After successful alcohol detoxification, a client remarked to a friend, "I’ve tried to stop drinking but I just can’t, I can’t even work without having a drink." The client’s belief that he needs alcohol indicates his dependence is primarily

1. Psychological
2. Physical
3. Biological
4. Social-cultural

Question 25. The nurse is caring for a depressed client with a new prescription for an SSRI antidepressant. In reviewing the admission history and physical, which of the following should prompt questions about the safety of this medication?

1. History of obesity
2. Prescribed use of an MAO inhibitor
3. Diagnosis of vascular disease
4. Takes antacids frequently

Question 26. The nurse is caring for a toddler with atopic dermatitis. The nurse should instruct the parents to
1. Dress the child warmly to avoid chilling
2. Keep the child away from other children for the duration of the rash
3. Clean the affected areas with tepid water and detergent
4. Wrap the child's hand in mittens or socks to prevent scratching

Question 27. The nurse detects blood-tinged fluid leaking from the nose and ears of a head trauma client. What is the appropriate nursing action?

1. Pack the nose and ears with sterile gauze
2. Apply pressure to the injury site
3. Apply bulky, loose dressing to nose and ears
4. Apply an ice pack to the back of the neck

Question 28. A client with emphysema visits the clinic. While teaching about proper nutrition, the nurse should emphasize that the client

1. Eat foods high in sodium increases sputum liquefaction
2. Use oxygen during meals improves gas exchange
3. Perform exercise after respiratory therapy enhances appetite
4. Cleanse the mouth of dried secretions reduces risk of infection

Question 29. The nurse is providing instructions to a new mother on the proper techniques for breast feeding her infant. Which statement by the mother indicates the need for additional instruction?

1. "I should position my baby completely facing me with my baby's mouth in front of my nipple."
2. "The baby should latch onto the nipple and areola areas."
3. "There may be times that I will need to manually express milk."
4. "I can switch to a bottle if I need to take a break from breast feeding."

Question 30. Immediately following an acute battering incident in a violent relationship, the batterer may respond to the partner’s injuries by

1. Seeking medical help for the victim's injuries
2. Minimizing the episode and underestimating the victim’s injuries
3. Contacting a close friend and asking for help
4. Being very remorseful and assisting the victim with medical care

Question 31. A client refuses to take the medication prescribed because the client prefers to take self-prescribed herbal preparations. What is the initial action the nurse should take?

1. Report the behavior to the charge nurse
2. Talk with the client to find out about the preferred herbal preparation
3. Contact the client's health care provider
4. Explain the importance of the medication to the client

Question 32. The nurse is performing an assessment on a child with severe airway obstruction. Which finding would the nurse anticipate finding?

1. Retractions in the intercostal tissues of the thorax
2. Chest pain aggravated by respiratory movement
3. Cyanosis and mottling of the skin
4. Rapid, shallow respirations

Question 33. The nurse is caring for several 70 to 80 year-old clients on bed rest. What is the most important measure to prevent skin breakdown?

1. Massage legs frequently
2. Frequent turning
3. Moisten skin with lotions
4. Apply moist heat to reddened areas

Question 34. The nurse will administer liquid medicine to a 9 month-old child. Which of the following methods is appropriate?

1. Allow the infant to drink the liquid from a medicine cup
2. Administer the medication with a syringe next to the tongue
3. Mix the medication with the infant's formula in the bottle
4. Hold the child upright and administer the medicine by spoon

Question 35. Which of the actions suggested to the RN by the PN during a planning conference for a 10 month-old infant admitted 2 hours ago with bacterial meningitis would be acceptable to add to the plan of care?

1. Measure head circumference
2. Place in airborne isolation
3. Provide passive range of motion
4. Provide an over-the-crib protective top

Question 36. The nurse is discussing nutritional requirements with the parents of an 18 month-old child. Which of these statements about milk consumption is correct?

1. May drink as much milk as desired
2. Can have milk mixed with other foods
3. Will benefit from fat-free cow's milk
4. Should be limited to 3-4 cups of milk daily

Question 37. The nurse is caring for a client with COPD who becomes dyspneic. The nurse should

1. Instruct the client to breathe into a paper bag
2. Place the client in a high Fowler's position
3. Assist the client with pursed lip breathing
4. Administer oxygen at 6L/minute via nasal cannula

Question 38. In preparing medications for a client with a gastrostomy tube, the nurse should contact the health care provider before administering which of the following drugs through the tube?

1. Cardizem SR tablet (diltiazem)
2. Lanoxin liquid
3. Os-cal tablet (calcium carbonate)
4. Tylenol liquid (acetaminophen)

Question 39. A 24 year-old male is admitted with a diagnosis of testicular cancer. The nurse would expect the client to have

1. Scrotal discoloration
2. Sustained painful erection
3. Inability to achieve erection
4. Heaviness in the affected testicle

Question 40. In taking the history of a pregnant woman, which of the following would the nurse recognize as the primary contraindication for breast feeding?

1. Age 40 years
2. Lactose intolerance
3. Family history of breast cancer
4. Uses cocaine on weekends

Question 41. The most common reason for an Apgar score of 8 and 9 in a newborn is an abnormality of what parameter?

1. Heart rate
2. Muscle tone
3. Cry
4. Color

Question 42. Based on principles of teaching and learning, what is the best initial approach to pre-op teaching for a client scheduled for coronary artery bypass?

1. Touring the coronary intensive unit
2. Mailing a video tape to the home
3. Assessing the client's learning style
4. Administering a written pre-test

Question 43. A nurse is assigned to a client who is a new admission for the treatment of a frontal lobe brain tumor. Which history offered by the family members would be anticipated by the nurse as associated with the diagnosis and communicated?

1. "My partner's breathing rate is usually below 12."
2. "I find the mood swings and the change from a calm person to being angry all the time hard to deal with."
3. "It seems our sex life is nonexistant over the past 6 months."
4. "In the morning and evening I hear complaints that reading is next to impossible from blurred print."

Question 44. A 9 year-old is taken to the emergency room with right lower quadrant pain and vomiting. When preparing the child for an emergency appendectomy, what must the nurse expect to be the child's greatest fear?
1. Change in body image
2. An unfamiliar environment
3. Perceived loss of control
4. Guilt over being hospitalized

Question 45. A home health nurse is caring for a client with a pressure sore that is red, with serous drainage, is 2 inches in diameter with loss of subcutaneous tissue. The appropriate dressing for this wound is

1. A transparent film dressing
2. Wet dressing with debridement granules
3. Wet to dry with hydrogen peroxide
4. Moist saline dressing

Question 46. The nurse, assisting in applying a cast to a client with a broken arm, knows that

1. The cast material should be dipped several times into the warm water
2. The cast should be covered until it dries
3. The wet cast should be handled with the palms of hands
4. The casted extremity should be placed on a cloth-covered surface

Question 47. The nurse prepares for a Denver Screening test with a 3 year-old child in the clinic. The mother asks the nurse to explain the purpose of the test. What is the nurse’s best response about the purpose of the Denver?

1. It measures a child’s intelligence.
2. It assesses a child's development.
3. It evaluates psychological responses.
4. It helps to determine problems.

Question 48. A client admits to benzodiazepine dependence for several years. She is now in an outpatient detoxification program. The nurse must understand that a priority during withdrawal is

1. Avoid alcohol use during this time
2. Observe the client for hypotension
3. Abrupt discontinuation of the drug
4. Assess for mild physical symptoms

Question 49. The nurse is monitoring the contractions of a woman in labor. A contraction is recorded as beginning at 10:00 A.M. and ending at 10:01 A.M. Another begins at 10:15 A.M. What is the frequency of the contractions?

1. 14 minutes
2. 10 minutes
3. 15 minutes
4. 9 minutes

Question 50. A victim of domestic violence tells the batterer she needs a little time away. How would the nurse expect that the batterer might respond?

1. With acceptance and views the victim’s comment as an indication that their marriage is in trouble
2. With fear of rejection causing increased rage toward the victim
3. With a new commitment to seek counseling to assist with their marital problems
4. With relief, and welcomes the separation as a means to have some personal time


ANSWERS

Pediatric Drill 7

Question 1. At a well baby clinic the nurse is assigned to assess an 8 month-old child. Which of these developmental achievements would the nurse anticipate that the child would be able to perform?

1. Say 2 words
2. Pull up to stand
3. Sit without support
4. Drink from a cup

Question 2. A polydrug user has been in recovery for 8 months. The client has began skipping breakfast and not eating regular dinners. The client has also started frequenting bars to "see old buddies." The nurse understands that the client’s behavior is a warning sign to indicate that the client may be

1. headed for relapse
2. feeling hopeless
3. approaching recovery
4. in need of increased socialization

Question 3. At the day treatment center a client diagnosed with Schizophrenia - Paranoid Type sits alone alertly watching the activities of clients and staff. The client is hostile when approached and asserts that the doctor gives her medication to control her mind. The client's behavior most likely indicates

1. Feelings of increasing anxiety related to paranoia
2. Social isolation related to altered thought processes
3. Sensory perceptual alteration related to withdrawal from environment
4. Impaired verbal communication related to impaired judgment

Question 4. When teaching adolescents about sexually transmitted diseases, what should the nurse emphasize that is the most common infection?

1. Gonorrhea
2. Chlamydia
3. Herpes
4. HIV

Question 5. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of meningitis. Which finding would the nurse expect in assessing this client?

1. Hyperextension of the neck with passive shoulder flexion
2. Flexion of the hip and knees with passive flexion of the neck
3. Flexion of the legs with rebound tenderness
4. Hyperflexion of the neck with rebound flexion of the legs



Question 6. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of hepatitis B. In reviewing the initial laboratory results, the nurse would expect to find elevation in which of the following values?

1. Blood urea nitrogen
2. Acid phosphatase
3. Bilirubin
4. Sedimentation rate

Question 7. A Hispanic client in the postpartum period refuses the hospital food because it is "cold." The best initial action by the nurse is to
1. Have the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reheat the food if the client wishes
2. Ask the client what foods are acceptable or bad
3. Encourage her to eat for healing and strength
4. Schedule the dietitian to meet with the client as soon as possible

Question 8. What is the most important aspect to include when developing a home care plan for a client with severe arthritis?

1. Maintaining and preserving function
2. Anticipating side effects of therapy
3. Supporting coping with limitations
4. Ensuring compliance with medications

Question 9. A client is experiencing hallucinations that are markedly increased at night. The client is very frightened by the hallucinations. The client’s partner asked to stay a few hours beyond the visiting time, in the client’s private room. What would be the best response by the nurse demonstrating emotional support for the client?

1. "No, it would be best if you brought the client some reading material that she could read at night."
2. "No, your presence may cause the client to become more anxious."
3. "Yes, staying with the client and orienting her to her surroundings may decrease her anxiety."
4. "Yes, would you like to spend the night when the client’s behavior indicates that she is frightened?"

Question 10. During an examination of a 2 year-old child with a tentative diagnosis of Wilm's tumor, the nurse would be most concerned about which statement by the mother?

1. My child has lost 3 pounds in the last month.
2. Urinary output seemed to be less over the past 2 days.
3. All the pants have become tight around the waist.
4. The child prefers some salty foods more than others.

Question 11. The nurse is caring for a child receiving chest physiotherapy (CPT). Which of the following actions by the nurse would be appropriate?

1. Schedule the therapy thirty minutes after meals
2. Teach the child not to cough during the treatment
3. Confine the percussion to the rib cage area
4. Place the child in a prone position for the therapy

Question 12. The nurse is assessing a child for clinical manifestations of iron deficiency anemia. Which factor would the nurse recognize as cause for the findings?

1. Decreased cardiac output
2. Tissue hypoxia
3. Cerebral edema
4. Reduced oxygen saturation

Question 13. First-time parents bring their 5 day-old infant to the pediatrician's office because they are extremely concerned about its breathing pattern. The nurse assesses the baby and finds that the breath sounds are clear with equal chest expansion. The respiratory rate is 38-42 breaths per minute with occasional periods of apnea lasting 10 seconds in length. What is the correct analysis of these findings?


1. The pediatrician must examine the baby
2. Emergency equipment should be available
3. This breathing pattern is normal
4. A future referral may be indicated

Question 14. A victim of domestic violence states to the nurse, "If only I could change and be how my companion wants me to be, I know things would be different." Which would be the best response by the nurse?

1. "The violence is temporarily caused by unusual circumstances; don’t stop hoping for a change."
2. "Perhaps, if you understood the need to abuse, you could stop the violence."
3. "No one deserves to be beaten. Are you doing anything to provoke your spouse into beating you?"
4. "Batterers lose self-control because of their own internal reasons, not because of what their partner did or did not do."

Question 15. Post-procedure nursing interventions for electroconvulsive therapy include

1. Applying hard restraints if seizure occurs
2. Expecting client to sleep for 4 to 6 hours
3. Remaining with client until oriented
4. Expecting long-term memory loss

Question 16. Which type of accidental poisoning would the nurse expect to occur in children under age 6?

1. Oral ingestion
2. Topical contact
3. Inhalation
4. Eye splashes

Question 17. A mother asks the nurse if she should be concerned about the tendency of her child to stutter. What assessment data will be most useful in counseling the parent?

1. Age of the child
2. Sibling position in family
3. Stressful family events
4. Parental discipline strategies

Question 18. A client was admitted to the psychiatric unit with major depression after a suicide attempt. In addition to feeling sad and hopeless, the nurse would assess for

1. Anxiety, unconscious anger, and hostility
2. Guilt, indecisiveness, poor self-concept
3. Psychomotor retardation or agitation
4. Meticulous attention to grooming and hygiene

Question 19. A nurse is to present information about Chinese folk medicine to a group of student nurses. Based on this cultural belief, the nurse would explain that illness is attributed to the..

1. Yang, the positive force that represents light, warmth, and fullness
2. Yin, the negative force that represents darkness, cold, and emptiness
3. Use of improper hot foods, herbs and plants
4. A failure to keep life in balance with nature and others

Question 20. A pre-term newborn is to be fed breast milk through nasogastric tube. Why is breast milk preferred over formula for premature infants?

1. Contains less lactose
2. Is higher in calories/ounce
3. Provides antibodies
4. Has less fatty acid

Question 21. A nurse is caring for a client with multiple myeloma. Which of the following should be included in the plan of care?

1. Monitor for hyperkalemia
2. Place in protective isolation
3. Precautions with position changes
4. Administer diuretics as ordered

Question 22. The nurse assesses a client who has been re-admitted to the psychiatric in-patient unit for schizophrenia. His symptoms have been managed for several months with fluphenazine (Prolixin). Which should be a focus of the first assessment?

1. Stressors in the home
2. Medication compliance
3. Exposure to hot temperatures
4. Alcohol use

Question 23. A nurse is conducting a community wide seminar on childhood safety issues. Which of these children is at the highest risk for poisoning?

1. 9 month-old who stays with a sitter 5 days a week
2. 20 month-old who has just learned to climb stairs
3. 10 year-old who occasionally stays at home unattended
4. 15 year-old who likes to repair bicycles

Question 24. A 30 month-old child is admitted to the hospital unit. Which of the following toys would be appropriate for the nurse to select from the toy room for this child?

1. Cartoon stickers
2. Large wooden puzzle
3. Blunt scissors and paper
4. Beach ball

Question 25. Which nursing action is a priority as the plan of care is developed for a 7 year-old child hospitalized for acute glomerulonephritis?

1. Assess for generalized edema
2. Monitor for increased urinary output
3. Encourage rest during hyperactive periods
4. Note patterns of increased blood pressure

Question 26. The nurse is talking to parents about nutrition in school aged children. Which of the following is the most common nutritional disorder in this age group?

1. Bulimia
2. Anorexia
3. Obesity
4. Malnutrition

Question 27. The mother of a 15 month-old child asks the nurse to explain her child's lab results and how they show her child has iron deficiency anemia. The nurse's best response is

1. "Although the results are here, your doctor will explain them later."
2. "Your child has less red blood cells that carry oxygen."
3. "The blood cells that carry nutrients to the cells are too large."
4. "There are not enough blood cells in your child's circulation."

Question 28. The nurse is preparing a 5 year-old for a scheduled tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. The parents are anxious and concerned about the child's reaction to impending surgery. Which nursing intervention would be best to prepare the child?

1. Introduce the child to all staff the day before surgery
2. Explain the surgery 1 week prior to the procedure
3. Arrange a tour of the operating and recovery rooms
4. Encourage the child to bring a favorite toy to the hospital

Question 29. A 38 year-old female client is admitted to the hospital with an acute exacerbation of asthma. This is her third admission for asthma in 7 months. She describes how she doesn't really like having to use her medications all the time. Which explanation by the nurse best describes the long-term consequence of uncontrolled airway inflammation?

1. Degeneration of the alveoli
2. Chronic bronchoconstriction of the large airways
3. Lung remodeling and permanent changes in lung function
4. Frequent pneumonia

Question 30. In a child with suspected coarctation of the aorta, the nurse would expect to find

1. Strong pedal pulses
2. Diminishing cartoid pulses
3. Normal femoral pulses
4. Bounding pulses in the arms

Question 31. A 2 year-old child has just been diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. The child's father asks the nurse "What is our major concern now, and what will we have to deal with in the future?" Which of the following is the best response?

1. "There is a probability of life-long complications."
2. "Cystic fibrosis results in nutritional concerns that can be dealt with."
3. "Thin, tenacious secretions from the lungs are a constant struggle in cystic fibrosis."
4. "You will work with a team of experts and also have access to a support group that the family can attend."

Question 32. The nurse should recognize that physical dependence is accompanied by what findings when alcohol consumption is first reduced or ended?

1. Seizures
2. Withdrawal
3. Craving
4. Marked Tolerance

Question 33. A client is admitted with a pressure ulcer in the sacral area. The partial thickness wound is 4cm by 7cm, the wound base is red and moist with no exudate and the surrounding skin is intact. Which of the following coverings is most appropriate for this wound?
1. Transparent dressing
2. Dry sterile dressing with antibiotic ointment
3. Wet to dry dressing
4. Occlusive moist dressing

Question 34. The nurse is caring for residents in a long term care setting for the elderly. Which of the following activities will be most effective in meeting the growth and development needs for persons in this age group?

1. Aerobic exercise classes
2. Transportation for shopping trips
3. Reminiscence groups
4. Regularly scheduled social activities

Question 35. The client who is receiving enteral nutrition through a gastrostomy tube has had 4 diarrhea stools in the past 24 hours. The nurse should

1. Review the medications the client is receiving
2. Increase the formula infusion rate
3. Increase the amount of water used to flush the tube
4. Attach a rectal bag to protect the skin

Question 36. The nurse assesses delayed gross motor development in a 3 year-old child. The inability of the child to do which action confirms this finding?

1. Stand on 1 foot
2. Catch a ball
3. Skip on alternate feet
4. Ride a bicycle

Question 37. The nurse is talking with a client. The client abruptly says to the nurse, "The moon is full. Astronauts walk on the moon. Walking is a good health habit." The client’s behavior most likely indicates

1. Neologisms
2. Dissociation
3. Flight of ideas
4. Word salad

Question 38. A client was admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder. He constantly bothers other clients, tries to help the housekeeping staff, demonstrates pressured speech and demands constant attention from the staff. Which activity would be best for the client?

1. Reading
2. Checkers
3. Cards
4. Ping-pong

Question 40. During the evaluation phase for a client, the nurse should focus on

1. All finding of physical and psychosocial stressors of the client and in the family
2. The client's status, progress toward goal achievement, and ongoing re-evaluation
3. Setting short and long-term goals to insure continuity of care from hospital to home
4. Select interventions that are measurable and achievable within selected timeframes

Question 41. The nurse is caring for a client with an unstable spinal cord injury at the T7 level. Which intervention should take priority in planning care?

1. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration
2. Place client on a pressure reducing support surface
3. Use skin care products designed for use with incontinence
4. Increase caloric intake to aid healing

Question 42. The nurse admits a client newly diagnosed with hypertension. What is the best method for assessing the blood pressure?

1. Standing and sitting
2. In both arms
3. After exercising
4. Supine position

Question 43. (In planning care for a child diagnosed with minimal change nephrotic syndrome, the nurse should understand the relationship between edema formation and

1. Increased retention of albumin in the vascular system
2. Decreased colloidal osmotic pressure in the capillaries
3. Fluid shift from interstitial spaces into the vascular space
4. Reduced tubular reabsorption of sodium and water

Question 44. The nurse is making a home visit to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The client tells the nurse that he used to be able to walk from the house to the mailbox without difficulty. Now, he has to pause to catch his breath halfway through the trip. Which diagnosis would be most appropriate for this client based on this assessment?

1.. Activity intolerance caused by fatigue related to chronic tissue hypoxia
2. Impaired mobility related to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
3. Self care deficit caused by fatigue related to dyspnea
4. Ineffective airway clearance related to increased bronchial secretions

Question 45. The nurse is caring for a client who has developed cardiac tamponade. Which finding would the nurse anticipate?

1. Widening pulse pressure
2. Pleural friction rub
3. Distended neck veins
4. Bradycardia

Question 46. A mother wants to switch her 9 month-old infant from an iron-fortified formula to whole milk because of the expense. Upon further assessment, the nurse finds that the baby eats table foods well, but drinks less milk than before. What is the best advice by the nurse?

1. Change the baby to whole milk
2. Add chocolate syrup to the bottle
3. Continue with the present formula
4. Offer fruit juice frequently

Question 47. A 65-year-old Hispanic-Latino client with prostate cancer rates his pain as a 6 on a 0-to-10 scale. The client refuses all pain medication other than Motrin, which does not relieve his pain. The next action for the nurse to take is to

1. Ask the client about the refusal of certain pain medications
2. Talk with the client's family about the situation
3. Report the situation to the health care provider
4. Document the situation in the notes

Question 48. Privacy and confidentiality of all client information is legally protected. In which of these situations would the nurse make an exception to this practice?

1. When a family member offers information about their loved one
2. When the client threatens self-harm and harm to others
3. When the health care provider decides the family has a right to know the client's diagnosis
4. When a visitor insists that the visitor has been given permission by the client

Question 49. At the geriatric day care program a client is crying and repeating "I want to go home. Call my daddy to come for me." The nurse should

1. Invite the client to join the exercise group
2. Tell the client you will call someone to come for her
3. Give the client simple information about what she will be doing
4. Firmly direct the client to her assigned group activity

Question 50. Which of the following nursing assessments in an infant is most valuable in identifying serious visual defects?

1. Red reflex test
2. Visual acuity
3. Pupil response to light
4. Cover test


ANSWERS

Pediatric Drill 6

Question 1. Which of the following would be commonly assessed in early acute glomerulonephritis (AGN)?

1. Dysuria, pedal edema, decreased urinary output
2. Seizures, increased urinary output, pale-colored urine
3. Tea-colored urine, anorexia, facial puffiness
4. Vomiting, bright red urine, abdominal distention

Question 2. Which of the following is the earliest sign of puberty in females?

1. Adrenarche
2. Growth spurt
3. Menarche
4. Thelarche

Question 3. A home health nurse notes excessive swallowing in a 7-year-old boy who had a tonsillectomy 1 week ago. Which of the following would be the nurse's priority intervention?

1. Administer aspirin because excessive swallowing indicates pain.
2. Administer extra fluids for dehydration.
3. Examine the child's throat for bleeding.
4. Instruct the child to spit out secretions instead of swallowing them.

Question 4. Which of the following complications would the nurse least expect to develop in a child with meningitis?

1. Cerebral palsy
2. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
3. Hydrocephalus
4. Pneumonia

Question 5. Which of the following is exemplified by a 4-year-old sibling of a sudden infant death syndrome victim who believes that she caused her sibling's death because she wished for it?

1. Abstract thinking
2. Concrete thinking
3. Magical thinking
4. Formal operational thinking

Question 6. The nurse develops a teaching plan for a mother who is concerned about her 6-month-old child awakening and crying frequently at night until comforted based on the nurse's understanding of which of the following?

1. Improper feeding
2. Maternal anxiety
3. Night terrors
4. Separation anxiety

Question 7. Which of the following would the nurse include when developing a parental teaching plan about the characteristics of febrile seizures?

1. Are more common in schoolagers
2. Are relatively benign in nature
3. Occur as the fever peaks
4. Result in moderate neurologic problems

Question 8. To test a schoolager's sense of conservation, which of the following would the nurse do?

1. Give the child a group of numbered blocks and have him arrange them according to some ordinal scale.
2. Give the child a mixture of stamps, wrappers, and shells and have him group them according to some classification system.
3. Show the child two equal-length pencils side by side, then move them out of alignment to see if he realizes they are still the same length.
4. State a situation to the child, then have him anticipate the consequences and rethink the action in a different direction.

Question 9. Which of the following statements, if voiced by the parents of a female child receiving co-trimoxazole (Bactrim) for a urinary tract infection (UTI), would indicate the need for additional teaching?

1. "We'll call the physician immediately if a rash occurs."
2. "We'll continue to give her the medication until it is finished."
3. "We'll make arrangements to have her white blood cell (WBC) count checked routinely."
4. "We'll try to make sure that she doesn't go outside in the sun."

Question 10. At which of the following ages would a child typically experience the most age-related psychological stress from a hypospadias repair?

1. 2 years
2. 4 years
3. 6 years
4. 8 years

Question 11. A nurse finds a 3-year-old boy simulating sexual intercourse with some dolls. The nurse should recognize this as which of the following?

1. A sign of possible sexual abuse
2. A symptom of developmental delay
3. Normal curiosity during play
4. The child's inexperience with doll play


Question 12. Which of the following assessments would be least likely to create a suspicion of Munchausen Syndrome by Proxy (MSP) in an infant admitted for persistent diarrhea?

1. Parent totally refuses to leave the hospital
2. Parent who gives history inconsistent with findings
3. Parent who is over-friendly to staff
4. Parent with little knowledge of child's illness

Question 13. When planning the care for children with primary enuresis, the nurse bases the plan on the knowledge of which of the following?

1. An underlying urological abnormality is common.
2. The child has had difficulty with toilet training.
3. The disorder is benign and self-limiting.
4. There is an underlying psychological disorder.

Question 14. A 2-year-old being treated for nephrotic syndrome develops a temperature of 99.8°F and a slight cough. Which of the following should the nurse do?

1. Assess the child for signs of a respiratory infection.
2. Encourage fluids to decrease fever.
3. Give the child a lozenge for sore throat.
4. Increase activity to prevent pneumonia.

Question 15. The nurse prepares to administer acetaminophen 200 mg as ordered for fever for a child who weighs 44 lb. What is the maximum safe dose for this child if acetaminophen should be given at 10 to 15 mg/kg per dose?

1. 200
2. 320
3. 300
4. 230

Question 16. When reviewing the laboratory results of a child with a possible urinary tract infection, which of the following collection method results indicates an infection when the colony count is more than 1,000 colonies/ml of a single organism?

1. Catheterized specimen
2. Clean catch specimen
3. Routine specimen
4. Suprapubic tap specimen

Question 17. Which of the following preventive measures should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a female child to prevent urinary tract infections?

1. Avoid tight jeans.
2. Empty bladder every 5 to 6 hours.
3. Use nylon underwear.
4. Wipe self back to front.

Question 18. Which of the following would the nurse do first when a child has a sudden and unexpected seizure?

1. Clear the area of hazards to prevent harm.
2. Place a tongue blade in the child's mouth to prevent aspiration.
3. Restrain the child to prevent injury.
4. Shake the child to ascertain level of consciousness (LOC).

Question 19. Which of the following complications would the nurse least expect to develop in a child with meningitis?

1. Cerebral palsy
2. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
3. Hydrocephalus
4. Pneumonia

Question 20. When evaluating the effectiveness of client teaching for an adolescent with mild mental retardation, which of the following would indicate the need for further teaching?

1. Adequate performance of activities of daily living (ADLs)
2. Avoidance of sexual discussions
3. Demonstration of practical skills
4. Dressing like peers

Looking for answers(s):2

Question 21. Which of the following would be most beneficial when caring for an infant with Nonorganic Failure to Thrive (NOFTT)?

1. Alternating staff for each feeding for variety
2. Changing routines when the child refuses feedings
3. Gradually introducing new foods to the child's diet
4. Stimulating the child with play during feedings

Question 22. Which of the following dietary measures would the nurse expect to institute for the child with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN)?

1. Decreased calcium
2. Decreased sodium
3. Increased nitrogen
4. Increased protein

Question 23. Which of the following is a primary prevention strategy for mental retardation?

1. Infant stimulation programs
2. Neonate screening
3. Prenatal diagnosis
4. Rubella vaccine

Question 24. The infant of a 13-year-old runaway mother is not held, fed, or changed consistently. This child is likely to develop a sense of which of the following?

1. Doubt
2. Guilt
3. Inferiority
4. Mistrust

Question 25. When monitoring the urine of a child with acute glomerulonephritis, which of the following values would be the most important to monitor?

1. Blood
2. pH
3. Protein
4. Specific gravity

Questions 26. In teaching age-related sources of stress to a group of parents and teachers, which of the following is a source of stress for 6-year-olds?

1. Infrequent interaction with peers
2. Interruption of sense of decorum
3. Own criticalness of performance
4. Sitting still for long periods

Question 27.
The nurse is caring for a child who has Kawasaki Disease (KD). Which of the following nursing interventions are appropriate? Select all that apply:

1. Administer prescribed prophylactic anticonvulsant medication.
2. Encourage fluids to maintain adequate kidney function.
3. Provide mouth care using lubricated ointment.
4. Use passive range of motion (ROM) if arthritis develops.
5. Assess for signs of heart failure.

Question 28. In evaluating a 10-year-old's psychosocial development, the nurse notes that the child is within normal for age. Therefore, the child has attained a sense of which of the following?

1. Autonomy
2. Identity
3. Industry
4. Initiative

Question 29. The nurse understands that the incidence of Reye's syndrome has decreased because of the association with which of the following?

1. Administration of immune toxoid
2. Decreased administration of aspirin for viral infections
3. Earlier identification of the disorder
4. Improved diagnostic testing for the disorder

Question 30. Which of the following would the nurse expect a 21-year-old with an IQ of 30 to be able to do?

1. Conform to daily routines.
2. Demonstrate social skills.
3. Perform simple tasks.
4. Travel alone to familiar places.

Question 31. Which of the following are true about pediatric pain management? Select all that apply:

1. Acute pain can lead to depression.
2. Young children have difficulty expressing their pain.
3. Pain scales can be effective for children.
4. I.M. pain therapy is preferable and effective.
5. The pain threshold is the maximum level of tolerance for pain.
2 3

Question 32. Which of the following would the nurse identify as the primary outcome when planning nursing care for a child with mental retardation?

1. The child will demonstrate self-care measures.
2. The child will demonstrate vocational skills.
3. The child will develop communication skills.
4. The child will obtain optimum development.

Question 33. Which of the following organisms would the nurse suspect as the most likely cause of bronchiolitis?

1. Haemophilus influenzae
2. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
3. Parainfluenza virus
4. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

Question 34. Which of the following is not a common signal that a child is ready for toilet training?

1. Ability to stay dry for 4 hours
2. >Expression of willingness to please parents
3. Regular bowel movements
4. Skills to indicate urge to go to the bathroom

Question 35.
Which of the following assessments would be noted in children with Minimal Change Nephrotic Syndrome (MCNS)?

1. Foul-smelling urine, frequency, dysuria
2. High blood pressure, hematuria, facial edema
3. Malaise, flank pain, high fever
4. Proteinuria, marked edema, slightly decreased blood pressure

Question 36. Which of the following would be included in the care plan for a child receiving oral phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizures?

1. Encouraging fluids
2. Giving rigorous oral hygiene
3. Monitoring blood pressure every 4 hours
4. Providing meticulous skin care

Question 37. A 16-year-old who is diagnosed with depression suddenly cheers up and gives her cherished teddy bear to her favorite nurse. Which of the following is the priority for the nurse at this time?

1. Assess the adolescent for possible suicidal ideation.
2. Give the bear back and discuss transitional objects.
3. Praise her mood change and her passage from childhood.
4. Tell her mother to call for a psychiatric referral.

Question 38. The mother of a 7-year-old with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) states that she is worried that her child will end up needing dialysis for the rest of his life. On which of the following would the nurse base the response to this mother?

1. Most children have relapses but do not need dialysis.
2. Most children have renal failure and need dialysis.
3. Most children only need temporary dialysis.
4. Most children return to normal functioning.

Question 39. A mother asks why her daughter needs further evaluation after having two urinary tract infections (UTIs). The nurse bases her explanation on the understanding that which of the following is commonly associated with UTIs?

1. Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN)
2. Nephrotic syndrome
3. Pyelonephritis
4. Vesicoureteral reflux (VUR)

Question 40. Which of the following is the first step in assessing suicidality?

1. Accessibility
2. Lethality
3. Proximity
4. Specificity

Question 41. When performing a neonate examination, a nurse suspects mild hypospadias. Which of the following demonstrates the nurse's understanding about the rationale for reporting this finding as soon as possible?

1. Circumcision should be postponed.
2. Infection must be prevented.
3. It requires immediate repair.
4. Undescended testes may be present.

Question 42. When a nurse is caring for a child who is receiving ribavirin (Virazole), the nurse plans interventions based on the knowledge of which of the following?

1. Contact precautions are discontinued during administration.
2. Pregnant nurses should not care directly for the infant.
3. Ribavirin is given via nebulizer four times per day.
4. Ribavirin is used for any infant with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) bronchiolitis.

Question 43. Which of the following reflects the child's level of moral development when a 2 1/2-year-old child states that the nurse is "a bad girl" after she administers an I.M. injection?

1. Conventional/"law and order"
2. Conventional/interpersonal concordance
3. Preconventional/naive instrumentation
4. Preconventional/punishment-obedience

Question 44. Based on the nurse's knowledge of the organism primarily responsible for causing urinary tract infections (UTIs) in children, which of the following would be included in a teaching plan on prevention?

1. Escherichia coli
2. Klebsiella
3. Mycoplasma
4. Proteus

Question 45. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be least likely associated with Minimal Change Nephrotic Syndrome (MCNS)?

1. Fatigue
2. Deficient fluid volume
3. Risk for impaired skin integrity
4. Risk for infection

Question 46. The nurse instructs the mother of an 8-year-old with group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal tonsillitis to take his prescribed penicillin for 10 days, primarily to prevent which of the following?

1. Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
2. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
3. Rheumatic fever
4. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

Question 47. Which of the following behaviors would be a cause of concern for a 5-year-old child whose pet hamster just died?

1. Acting sad and tearful
2. Sleeplessness and loss of appetite
3. Trying to dig it up from its grave
4. Wanting to buy the dead animal food

Question 48. Which of the following infection control precautions should the nurse initiate when a child is admitted for possible meningococcal meningitis?

1. Airborne precautions
2. Contact precautions
3. Droplet precautions
4. Neutropenic precautions

Question 49. When managing an abused child, the nurse should be aware that this child is most likely to do which of the following?

1. Compensate by doing well in school.
2. Develop aggressive behavior toward other children.
3. Develop overly strong peer attachments.
4. Seek assistance from teachers.

Question 50. A mother is concerned because her 16-month-old child is not walking yet. Which of the following would be the home health nurse's best response?

1. "Give him more time; children grow at their own pace."
2. "Refer this to your primary care physician."
3. "Try using high-topped shoes to support his ankles."
4. "Use a walker; it will help to strengthen his legs."

ANSWERS

Pediatric Drill 5

Question 1. For which of the following would the nurse monitor when caring for a child who is receiving vincristine (Oncovin)?

1. Cardiac abnormalities
2. Foot drop
3. Hemorrhagic cystitis
4. Moon face

Question 2. Which of the following is the primary nursing goal when caring for the child with erythema subitum (roseola)?

1. Experience of minimal discomfort
2. Maintenance of normal body temperature
3. Maintenance of skin integrity
4. Minimization of long-term complications

Question 3. The nurse institutes proper infection control precautions for a 1-year-old brought to the emergency department with coryza, conjunctivitis, and small red, blue-white centered spots on her buccal mucosa because the nurse suspects which of the following?

1. Fifth disease
2. Roseola
3. Rubella
4. Rubeola

Question 4. Which of the following would be the nurse's least concern for a child requiring prolonged immobilization?

1. Decreased catabolic activity related to muscle atrophy
2. Decreased movement of secretions from the tracheobronchial tree
3. Dependent edema related to decreased venous return
4. Hypercalcemia due to bone demineralization

Question 5. Which of the following is characteristic of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

1. Death between ages 15 and 25
2. Early weakness of the shoulder muscles
3. Intervals without disease progression
4. Onset in the first year of life

Question 6. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in a child with hypopituitarism?

1. Delay evident in first year
2. Delayed primary tooth eruption
3. Skeletal proportions normal for age

Question 7. When caring for a child with mumps, which of the following complications would the home health nurse expect as least likely to occur?

1. Arthritis
2. Bronchiolitis
3. Encephalitis
4. Orchitis

Question 8. Which of the following assessment findings would be exhibited in a child with Cushing syndrome?

1. Decreased appetite and paleness
2. Decreased blood pressure and acidosis
3. Hypoglycemia and skin thickening
4. Increased susceptibility to infection and virilization

Question 9. Which of the following interventions would be included in the care plan to prevent the most serious shunt complication?

1. Checking for inflammation at operative site and shunt tracts
2. Observing behavior, blood pressure, and pulse
3. Positioning carefully, flat on operative side
4. Providing meticulous skin care

Question 10. Upon admission of a 4-year-old child to rule out leukemia, the parents ask the nurse when they will know the diagnosis. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that the results of which of the following confirms leukemia?

1. Bone marrow aspiration
2. Complete blood count
3. Lumbar puncture
4. Peripheral blood smear

Question 11. Which of the following manifestations would the nurse include in the teaching plan for a mother who is concerned that her 15-year-old daughter may have acquired hypothyroidism because the girl's grandmother had it?

1. Constipation, dry skin, sparse hair
2. Diarrhea, weight loss, and short stature
3. Lethargy, mental retardation, growth failure
4. Urine retention, coarse hair, cold hands

Question 12. Which of the following would be inappropriate to assist a child with cerebral palsy in performing his activities of daily living (ADLs)?

1. Allowing for frequent rest periods
2. Decreasing calories to prevent weight gain
3. Encouraging activity with signs of fatigue
4. Praising the child for his accomplishments

Question 13. Which of the following client statements indicates that a 15-year-old with alopecia secondary to chemotherapy requires more teaching?

1. "I think I'll use a scarf so I can look better."
2. "If I need chemo again, my hair won't fall out as bad."
3. "I'll wear a cap or bandana in the sun."
4. "My hair will start to regrow in 1 year."

Question 14. When evaluating the effectiveness of the preoperative teaching plan with the parents of children diagnosed with Wilms' tumor, which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the parents require further teaching?

1. Asking about the child's blood pressure
2. Encouraging the child to discuss fears
3. Frequently palpating the child's abdomen
4. Stating that they will discuss alopecia after surgery

Question 15.
Which of the following agents would the nurse suspect as the probable cause of mood swings in a child with leukemia?

1. Allopurinol
2. Granulocyt colony-stimulating factor
3. L-asparaginase
4. Steroids

Question 16. A mother is upset because her 8-year-old daughter developed a right breast mass. She asks the nurse what she should do. The nurse bases her response on knowing that the breast mass is most likely due to which of the following?

1. Gynecomastia
2. Precocious pseudo puberty
3. Precocious thelarche
4. The onset of puberty

Question 17. When evaluating the effectiveness of teaching about exchange diets for an adolescent with diabetes mellitus, which of the following fast food choices, when stated by the client, indicates understanding about using the least amount of exchange equivalents?

1. A taco
2. Cheeseburger
3. Roast beef sandwich
4. Three slices of pizza

Question 18. Which of the following maternal deficiencies is associated with the development of neural tube defects (NTDs)?

1. Amino acid
2. Ascorbic acid
3. Folic acid
4. Valproic acid

Question 19. When assessing children for early signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), the nurse monitors the child for which of the following?

1. Altered pupil reactivity
2. Decreased level of consciousness (LOC)
3. Early morning headache
4. Papilledema

Question 20. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate when caring for a child with leukemia who has a platelet count of 20,000/mm?

1. Discouraging nose-blowing
2. Increasing iron-rich foods in the diet
3. Instituting strict isolation
4. Medicating for pain every 4 hours

Question 21. The mother of a child with scarlet fever demonstrates the need for more teaching when she states which of the following?

1. "I can give my child gargles and lozenges for sore throat."
2. "I will administer the full 10-day course of penicillin."
3. "I'll give the child a soft diet of small, frequent meals."
4. "I'll keep the child in isolation until the rash disappears."

Question 22. When planning nursing care, which of the following childhood illnesses does not require antibiotics?

1. Diphtheria
2. Pertussis
3. Poliomyelitis
4. Scarlet fever

Question 23. For a child with which of the following would the nurse question an order for a lumbar puncture?

1. Encephalitis
2. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)
3. Leukemia
4. Meningitis

Question 24. Which of the following would be inappropriate for a child in a Boston or Thoraco-Lumbo-Sacral Orthosis?

1. Brace removal every 2 hours for skin care
2. Compliance with brace use
3. Maintenance of positive body image
4. Maintenance of skin integrity

Question 25. Which of the following is the most appropriate response to the mother of a child with varicella who asks how long her child will be contagious?

1. "For 3 to 4 days after the very first lesions begin to appear."
2. "For a total of 10 to 21 days."
3. "From the appearance of cold symptoms until when the lesions are crusted."
4. "Starting from the time when there are lesions present."

Question 26. When planning the postoperative care of an infant with hydrocephalus, which of the following would the nurse expect as the most common type of shunt used?

1. Ventricular bypass
2. Ventriculoatrial (VA)
3. Ventriculoperitoneal (VP)
4. Ventriculopleural

Question 27. When assessing a 4-year-old child with a brain tumor, which of the following preoperative assessments would the nurse consider least important?

1. Behavior
2. Cranial enlargement
3. Headaches
4. Projectile vomiting

Question 28. When assessing an infant with developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH), the nurse would most likely note which of the following?

1. Positive Ortolani's sign
2. Positive Trendelenburg sign
3. Shortening of unaffected limb
4. Symmetry of the gluteal folds

Question 29. After teaching a group of parents about cancer and associated cardinal signs and symptoms, which of the following signs and symptoms, if stated by the group, would indicate to the nurse that the group needs more teaching?

1. Localized pain
2. Sudden vision changes
3. Unexplained bleeding
4. Unusual mass or swelling

Question 30. For which of the following should the nurse be alert when a 3-year-old child with sickle cell anemia develops erythema infectiosum?

1. Chest pain and fever
2. Increased arthralgia
3. Neurologic impairment
4. Profound anemia


Question 31. Which of the following parental statements indicates the need for additional teaching about human growth hormone (HGH)?

1. "Our child will reach adult height, but slower than his peers."
2. "The best time to administer the medication would be at bedtime."
3. "This medication is expensive to buy."
4. "We'll administer the medication with food, but we won't give it with milk."

Question 32. Which of the following would the nurse be sure to include in the teaching plan as the most common cause of Cushing syndrome in children?

1. Adrenal hyperplasia
2. Adrenocortical neoplasm
3. Extra pituitary lesion
4. Use of large amounts of corticosteroids

Question 33. Which of the following clinical assessments would be included when caring for an infant with hydrocephalus?

1. Ataxia
2. Increased head circumference
3. Papilledema
4. Vomiting

Question 34. Which of the following should the school nurse do first when a child with diabetes mellitus becomes unresponsive during recess?

1. Administer 3 to 6 ounces of orange juice.
2. Administer glucagon as prescribed.
3. Give the child milk and peanut butter crackers.
4. Immediately transport the child by car to the hospital.

Question 35. Which of the following foods would be inappropriate for a 6-year-old in a full body cast?

1. Apple juice
2. Cereal
3. Hamburger
4. Milk shakes

Question 36. To provide effective client teaching, the nurse is aware that idiopathic hypopituitarism is usually related to which of the following?

1. Constitutional growth delay
2. Familial short stature
3. Growth hormone (GH) deficiency
4. Psychosocial dwarfism


Question 37. When caring for children who have received bone marrow transplants, the nurse is aware that graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) least commonly occurs with which of the following?

1. Allogenic
2. Autologous
3. Human leukocyte antigen (HLA) system complex
4. Syngeneic

Question 38. Which of the following systems is least likely associated with the development of complications in the long-term follow-up of childhood cancer survivors?

1. Endocrine
2. Reproductive
3. Respiratory
4. Skeletal

Question 39. Which of the following might a parent notice in a child with early retinoblastoma

1. Blindness
2. Inflamed conjuctiva
3. Protruding eyes
4. White appearing in the lens

Question 40. The mother of a 4-year-old admitted with a fractured femur states, "He ran into a door and his bones break easy because he has that real common kind of brittle bone disease." Which of the following assessments would help the nurse to confirm the mother's statement?

1. Blue sclera
2. Different staged bruises
3. Lack of tooth development
4. Marked limb deformity

Question 41. Which of the following parental statements indicates the need for additional teaching about the use of long-acting desmopressin acetate (DDAVP)?

1. "The drug should last for 48 to 72 hours."
2. "We might see breakthrough urination in the evening."
3. "We should watch for headaches and nausea."
4. "We will administer it intranasally through a flexible tube."

Question 42. The parents of a child who has been newly diagnosed with cerebral palsy question the nurse about the child's prognosis. The nurse bases her response on knowing which of the following?

1. Cerebral palsy is nonprogressive with variable outcomes.
2. The child will become progressively worse.
3. The condition improves gradually with stimulation.
4. The illness progression is variable, but results in predicted patient outcomes.

Question 43. Which of the following denotes the primary reason for teaching testicular self-examination of males ages 13 to 14 who are at least at Tanner's stage III of development?

1. Testicular cancer is most common in males ages 15 to 34.
2. They will become more comfortable with their own sexuality.
3. They will become more familiar with their own anatomy.
4. They will develop a health promotion habit important in later life.

Question 44. Which of the following would be an early sign of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM) in children?

1. Abdominal discomfort and nausea
2. Marked increase in fluid intake
3. Recurrent Candida infections
4. Sudden onset of bedwetting

Question 45. Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with ethical and moral issues regarding life support withdrawal and organ donation?

1. Anencephaly
2. Encephalocele
3. Meningocele
4. Microcephaly

Question 46. Which of the following would be least likely to occur when providing routine postoperative care for an infant with myelomeningocele?

1. Cognitive delays
2. Head circumference increase
3. Latex allergy
4. Urine retention

Question 47. Which of the following is an early warning sign of cerebral palsy?

1. Failure to sit without support at age 5 months
2. Failure to smile by age 3 months
3. Poor head control at age 2 months
4. Pushing food out of mouth with tongue at age 3 months

Question 48. Which of the following would be the most appropriate mouth care for a 2-year-old with stomatitis?

1. Hydrogen peroxide
2. Lemon and glycerin swabs
3. Plain water
4. Viscouse lidocaine

Question 49. Which of the following psychosocial stressors is likely to be imposed upon an immobilized 2-year-old?

1. Guilt
2. Inferiority
3. Mistrust
4. Shame

Question 50. In addition to the usual postoperative care, immediate postoperative care of the adolescent who had a Luque repair of scoliosis includes which of the following?

1. Administering nonopioids for pain
2. Assessing for neurologic integrity
3. Encouraging frequent voiding
4. Logrolling every 2 hours

ANSWERS

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