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HI there....welcome To test visual acuity, the nurse should ask the patient to cover each eye separately and read the eye chart with glasses and without, as appropriate. Fundamental of Nursing Before teaching any procedure to the patient, the nurse must first assess the patient’s willingness to learn and his current knowledge. Fundamentals of Nursing A blood pressure cuff that is too narrow can cause a falsely elevated blood pressure reading. Fundamentals of Nursing When preparing a single injection for a patient who takes regular and NPH insulin, the nurse should draw the regular insulin into the syringe first because it is clear and can be measured more accurately than the NPH insulin, which is turbid. Fundamentals of Nursing Rhonchi refers to the rumbling sounds heard on lung auscultation; they are more pronounced during expiration than during inspiration. Fundamentals of Nursing Gavage refers to forced feeding, usually through a gastric tube (a tube passed into the stomach by way of the mouth). Fundamentals of Nursing According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, physiologic needs (air, water, food, shelter, sex, activity, and comfort) have the highest priority. Fundamentals of Nursing Checking the identification band on a patient’s wrist is the safest and surest way to verify a patient’s identity. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient’s safety is the priority concern in developing a therapeutic environment. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should place the patient with a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube in semi-Fowler’s position. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse can elicit Trousseau’s sign by occluding the brachial or radial artery; hand and finger spasms during occlusion indicate Trousseau’s sign and suggest hypocalcemia. Fundamentals of Nursing For blood transfusion in an adult, the appropriate needle size is 16 to 20G. Fundamentals of Nursing Pain that incapacities a patient and can’t be relieved by drugs is called intractable pain. Fundamentals of Nursing In an emergency, consent for treatment can be obtained by fax, telephone, or other telegraphic transmission. Fundamentals of Nursing Decibel is the unit of measurement of sound. Fundamentals of Nursing Informed consent is required for any invasive procedure. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient who can’t write his or her name to give consent for treatment must have his or her X witnessed by two persons, such as a nurse, priest, or doctor. Fundamentals of Nursing The Z-track I.M. injection technique seals medication deep into the muscle, thereby minimizing skin irritation and staining. It requires a needle that is 1’’ (2.5 cm) or longer. Fundamentals of Nursing A registered nurse (RN) should assign a licensed vocational nurse (LVN) or licensed practical nurse (LPN) to perform bedside care, such as suctioning and medication administration. Fundamentals of Nursing The therapeutic purposed of a mist tent is to increase hydration of secretions. Fundamentals of Nursing If a patient can’t void, the first nursing action should be bladder palpation to assess for bladder distention. Fundamentals of Nursing The patient who uses a cane should carry it on the unaffected side and advance it at the same time as the affected extremity. Fundamentals of Nursing To fit a supine patient for crutches, the nurse should measure from the axilla to the sole and add 2” (5 cm) to that measurement. Fundamentals of Nursing Assessment begins with the nurse’s first encounter with the patient and continues throughout the patient’s stay. The nurse obtains assessment data through the health history, physical examination, and review of diagnostic studies. Fundamentals of Nursing The appropriate needle size for an insulin injection is 25G and ⅝" (1.5 cm) long. Fundamentals of Nursing Residual urine refers to urine that remains in the bladder after voiding. The amount of residual urine normally ranges from 50 to 100 ml. Fundamentals of Nursing The five stages of the nursing process are assessment, nursing diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation. Fundamentals of Nursing Planning refers to the stage of the nursing process in which the nurse assigns priorities to nursing diagnoses, defines short-term and long-term goals and expected outcomes, and establishes the nursing care plan. Fundamentals of Nursing Implementation refers to the stage of the nursing process in which the nurse puts the nursing care plan into action, delegates specific nursing interventions to members of the nursing team, and charts patient responses to nursing interventions. Fundamentals of Nursing Evaluation refers to the stage of the nursing process in which the nurse compares objective and subjective data with the outcome criteria and, if needed, modifies the nursing care plan, making the nursing process circular. Fundamentals of Nursing In the event of fire, the nurse should (1) remove the patient, (2) call the fire department, (3) attempt to contain the fire by closing the door, and (4) extinguish the fire, if it can be done safely. Fundamentals of Nursing Before administering any as need pain medication, the nurse should ask the patient to indicate the pain’s location. Fundamentals of Nursing Jehovah’s Witnesses believe that they shouldn’t receive blood components donated by other people. Fundamentals of Nursing When providing oral care for an unconscious patient, the nurse should position the patient on the side to minimize the risk of aspiration. Fundamentals of Nursing During assessment of distance vision, the patient should stand 20’ (6.1 m) from the chart. Fundamentals of Nursing The ideal room temperature for a geriatric patient or one who is extremely ill ranges form 66º to 76º F (18.8º to 24.4º C). Fundamentals of Nursing Normal room humidity ranges from 30% to 60%. Fundamentals of Nursing Hand washing is the single best method of limiting the spread of microorganisms. Hands should be washed for 10 seconds after routine contact with a patient and after gloves are removed. Fundamentals of Nursing To catheterize a female patient, the nurse should place her in the dorsal recumbent position. Fundamentals of Nursing A positive Homan’s sign may indicate thrombophlebitis. Fundamentals of Nursing Electrolytes in a solution are measured in milliequivalents per liter (mEq/L). A milliequivalent equals the number of milligrams per 100 milliliters of a solution. Fundamentals of Nursing Metabolism takes a place in two phases: anabolism (the constructive phase) and catabolism (the destructive phase). Fundamentals of Nursing The basal metabolic rate represents the amount of energy needed to maintain essential body functions. It is measured when the patient is awake and resting, hasn’t eaten for 14 to 18 hours, and is in a comfortable, warm environment. Fundamentals of Nursing Dietary fiber (roughage), which is derived from cellulose, supplies bulk, maintains adequate intestinal motility, and helps establish regular bowel habits. Fundamentals of Nursing Alcohol is metabolized primarily in the liver. Smaller amounts are metabolized by the kidneys and lungs. Fundamentals of Nursing Petechiae refers to tiny, round, purplish red spots that appear on the skin and mucous membranes as a result of intradermal or submucosal hemorrhage. Fundamentals of Nursing Purpura refers to a purple skin discoloration caused by blood extravasation. Fundamentals of Nursing Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (C6PD) deficiency is an inherited metabolic disorder characterized by red blood cells that are deficient in G6PD, a critical enzyme in aerobic glycolysis. Fundamentals of Nursing According to the standard precautions recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the nurse shouldn’t recap needles after use because most needle sticks result from missed needle recapping. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse administers a drug by I.V. push by delivering the dose directly into a vein, I.V. tubing, or catheter with a needle and syringe. Fundamentals of Nursing When changing the ties on a tracheostomy tube, the nurse should leave the old ties in place until the new ones are applied. Fundamentals of Nursing A nurse should have assistance when changing the ties on a tracheostomy tube. Fundamentals of Nursing A filter is always used for blood transfusions. Fundamentals of Nursing A four-point (quad) cane is indicated when a patient needs more stability than a regular cane can provide. Fundamentals of Nursing The patient should carry a cane on the unaffected side to promote a reciprocal gait pattern and distribute weight away from the affected leg. Fundamentals of Nursing A good way to begin a patient interview is to ask “What made you seek medical help?” Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should adhere to standard precautions for blood and body fluids when caring for all patients. Fundamentals of Nursing Potassium (K+) is the most abundant cation in intracellular fluid. Fundamentals of Nursing In the four-point gait (or alternating gait), the patient first moves the right crutch followed by the left foot and then the left crutch followed by the right foot. Fundamentals of Nursing In the three-point gait, the patient moves two crutches and the affected leg simultaneously and then moves the unaffected leg. Fundamentals of Nursing In the two-point gait, the patient moves the right leg and the left crutch simultaneously and then moves the left leg and the right crutch. Fundamentals of Nursing Vitamin B complex, the water-soluble vitamins essential for metabolism, include thiamine (B1), riboflavin (B2), niacin (B3), pyridoxine (B6), and cyanocobalamin (B12). Fundamentals of Nursing When being weighed, an adult patient should be lightly dressed and shoeless. Fundamentals of Nursing Before taking an adult’s oral temperature, the nurse should ensure that the patient hasn’t smoked or consumed hot or cold substances in the past 15 minutes. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse shouldn’t take a rectal temperature on an adult patient if the patient has a cardiac disorder; anal lesions, or bleeding hemorrhoids or has recently undergone rectal surgery. Fundamentals of Nursing In a patient with cardiac problems, rectal temperature measurement may stimulate a vagal response, leading to vasodilation and decreased cardiac output. Fundamentals of Nursing When recording pulse amplitude and rhythm, the nurse should use these descriptive measures: +3 indicates a bounding pulse (readily palpable and forceful); +2, a normal pulse (easily palpable); +1, a thready or weak pulse (difficult to detect); and 0, an absent pulse (not detectable). Fundamentals of Nursing The intraoperative period begins when a patient is transferred to the operating room bed and ends when the patient is admitted to the postanesthesia recovery unit. Fundamentals of Nursing On the morning of surgery, the nurse should ensure that the informed consent form has been signed; that the patient hasn’t taken anything by mouth since midnight, has taken a shower with antimicrobial soap, has had mouth care (without swallowing the water, has removed common jewelry, and has received preoperative medication as prescribed; and that vital signs have taken and recorded. Artificial limbs and other prostheses are usually removed. Fundamentals of Nursing Comfort measures, such as positioning the patient, performing backrubs, and providing a restful environment, may decrease the patient’s need for analgesics or may enhance their effectiveness. Fundamentals of Nursing A drug has three names: its generic name, which is used in official publications; its trade name or brand name (such as Tylenol), which is selected by the drug company; and its chemical name, which describes the drug’s chemical composition. Fundamentals of Nursing The patient should take a liquid iron preparation through a straw to avoid staining the teeth. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use the Z-track method to administer an I.M. injection of iron dextran (Imferon). Fundamentals of Nursing An organism may enter the body through the nose, mouth, rectum, urinary or reproductive tract, or skin. Fundamentals of Nursing In descending order, the levels of consciousness are alertness, lethargy, stupor, light coma, and deep coma. Fundamentals of Nursing To turn a patient by logrolling, the nurse folds the patient’s arms across the chest; extends the patient’s legs and inserts a pillow between them, if indicated; places a draw sheet under the patient; and turns the patient by slowly and gently pulling on the draw sheet. Fundamentals of Nursing The diaphragm of the stethoscope is used to hear high-pitched sounds such as breath sounds. Fundamentals of Nursing A slight blood pressure difference (5 to 10 mm Hg) between right and left arms is normal. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should place the blood pressure cuff 1'' (2.5 cm) above the antecubital fossa. Fundamentals of Nursing When instilling ophthalmic ointments, waste the first bed of ointment and then apply from the inner canthus to the outer canthus; twist the medication tube to detach the ointment. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use a leg cuff to measure blood pressure in an obese patient. Fundamentals of Nursing If the blood pressure cuff is applied too loosely, the reading will be falsely elevated. Fundamentals of Nursing Ptosis refers to eyelid drooping. Fundamentals of Nursing A tilt table is useful for a patient with a spinal cord injury, orthostatic hypotension, or brain damage because it can move the patient gradually from a horizontal to a vertical (upright) position. Fundamentals of Nursing To perform venipuncture with the least injury to the vessel, the nurse should turn the bevel upward when the vessel’s lumen is larger than the needle and turn it downward when the lumen is only slightly larger than the needle. Fundamentals of Nursing To move the patient to the edge of the bed for transfer, follow these steps: (1) Move the patient’s head and shoulders toward the edge of the bed. (2) Move the patient’s feet and legs to the edge of the bed (crescent position). (3) Place both the arms well under the patient’s hips and straighten the back while moving the patient toward the edge of the bed. Fundamentals of Nursing When being measured for crutches, a patient should wear his or her shoes. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should attach a restraint to a part of the bed frame that moves with the head, not to the mattress or side rails. Fundamentals of Nursing The mist in a mist tent should never become so dense that it obscures clear visualization of the patient’s respiratory pattern. Fundamentals of Nursing To administer heparin subcutaneously, the nurse should follow these steps: (1) Clean, but don’t rub, the site with alcohol. (2) Stretch the skin taut or pick up a well-defined skin fold. (3)Hold the shaft of the needle in a dart position. (4)Insert the needle into the skin at a right (90-degree) angle. (5)Firmly depress the plunger; but don’t aspirate. (6)Leave the needle in place for 10 seconds. (7)Withdraw the needle gently at the same angle it was inserted. (8)Apply pressure to the injection site with an alcohol pad. Fundamentals of Nursing For a sigmoidoscopy, the nurse should place the patient in a knee-chest or Sims’ position, depending on the doctor’s preference. Fundamentals of Nursing Maslow’s hierarchy of needs must be met in the following order: physiologic (oxygen, food, water, sex, rest, and comfort) safety and security, love and belonging, self-esteem and recognition, and self-actualization. Fundamentals of Nursing When caring for patient with a nasogastric tube, the nurse should apply a water-soluble lubricant to the nostril to prevent soreness. Fundamentals of Nursing During gastric lavage, a nasogastric tube is inserted, the stomach is flushed, and ingested substances are removed through the tube. Fundamentals of Nursing In documenting drainage on a surgical dressing, the nurse should include the size, color, and consistency of the drainage, for example, “10 mm of brown mucoid drainage noted on dressing.” Fundamentals of Nursing To elicit Babinski’s reflex, the nurse strokes the sole of the patient’s foot with a moderately sharp object, such as thumbnail. Fundamentals of Nursing In a positive Babinski’s reflex, the great toe dorsiflexes and the other toes fan out. Fundamentals of Nursing When assessing a patient for bladder distention, the nurse should check the contour of the lower abdomen for a rounded mass above the symphysis pubis. Fundamentals of Nursing The best way to prevent pressure ulcers is to reposition the bedridden patient at least every 2 hours. Fundamentals of Nursing Antiembolism stockings decompress the superficial blood vessels, thereby reducing the risk of thrombus formation. Fundamentals of Nursing The most convenient veins for venipuncture in a adult patient are the basilic and median cubital veins in the antecubital space. Fundamentals of Nursing From 2 to 3 hours before beginning a tube feeding, the nurse should aspirate the patient’s stomach contents to verify adequate gastric emptying. Fundamentals of Nursing People with type O blood are considered to be universal donors. Fundamentals of Nursing People with type AB blood are considered to be universal recipients. Fundamentals of Nursing Herts (Hz) refers to the unit of measurement of sound frequency. Fundamentals of Nursing Hearing protection is required when the sound intensity exceeds 84 dB; double hearing protection is required if it exceeds 104 dB. Fundamentals of Nursing Prothrombin, a clotting factor, is produced in the liver. Fundamentals of Nursing If a patient is menstruating when a urine sample is collected, the nurse should note this on the laboratory slip. Fundamentals of Nursing During lumbar puncture, the nurse must note the initial intracranial pressure and the cerebrospinal fluid color. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient who can’t cough to provide a sputum sample for culture may require a heated aerosol treatment to facilitate removal of a sample. Fundamentals of Nursing If eye ointment and eyedrops must be instilled in the same eye, the eyedrops should be instilled first. Fundamentals of Nursing When leaving an isolation room, the nurse should remove the gloves before the mask because fewer pathogens are on the mask. Fundamentals of Nursing Skeletal traction is applied to a bone using wire pins or tons. It is the most effective means of traction. Fundamentals of Nursing The total parenteral nutrition solution should be stored in a refrigerator and removed 30 to 60 minutes before use because delivery of a chilled solution can cause pain, hypothermia, venous spasm, and venous constriction. Fundamentals of Nursing Medication isn’t routinely injected I.M. into edematous tissue because it may not be absorbed. Fundamentals of Nursing When caring for a comatose patient, the nurse should explain each action to the patient in a normal voice. Fundamentals of Nursing When cleaning dentures, the sink should be lined with a washcloth. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient should void within 8 hours after surgery. Fundamentals of Nursing An EEG identifies normal and abnormal brain waves. Fundamentals of Nursing Stool samples for ova and parasite tests should be delivered to the laboratory without delay or refrigeration. Fundamentals of Nursing The autonomic nervous system regulates the cardiovascular and respiratory systems. Fundamentals of Nursing When providing tracheostomy care, the nurse should insert the catheter gently into the tracheostomy tube. When withdrawing the catheter, the nurse should apply intermittent suction for no more than 15 seconds and use a slight twisting motion. Fundamentals of Nursing A low-residue diet includes such as foods as roasted chicken, rice, and pasta. Fundamentals of Nursing A rectal tube should not be inserted for longer than 20 minutes; it can irritate the mucosa of the rectum and cause a loss of sphincter control. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient’s bed bath should proceed in this order: face, neck, arms, hands, chest, abdomen, back, legs, perineum. Fundamentals of Nursing When lifting and moving a patient, the nurse should use the upper leg muscles most to prevent injury. Fundamentals of Nursing Patient preparation for cholecystography includes ingestion of a contrast medium and a low-fat evening meal. Fundamentals of Nursing During occupied bed changes, the patient should be covered with a black blanket to promote warmth and prevent exposure. Fundamentals of Nursing Anticipatory grief refers to mourning that occurs for an extended time when one realizes that death is inevitable. Fundamentals of Nursing The following foods can alter stool color: beets (red), cocoa (dark red or brown), licorice (black), spinach (green), and meat protein (dark brown). Fundamentals of Nursing When preparing a patient for a skull X-ray, have the patient remove all jewelry and dentures. Fundamentals of Nursing The fight-or-flight response is a sympathetic nervous system response. Fundamentals of Nursing Bronchovesicular breath sounds in peripheral lung fields are abnormal and suggest pneumonia. Fundamentals of Nursing Wheezing refers to an abnormal, high-pitched breath sound that is accentuated on expiration. Fundamentals of Nursing Wax or a foreign body in the ear should be gently flushed out by irrigation with warm saline solution. Fundamentals of Nursing If a patient complains that his hearing aid is “not working,” the nurse should check the switch first to see if it’s turned on and then check the batteries. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should grade hyperactive biceps and triceps reflexes +4. Fundamentals of Nursing If two eye medications are prescribed for twice-daily instillation, they should be administered 5 minutes apart. Fundamentals of Nursing In a postoperative patient, forcing fluids helps prevent constipation. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse must administer care in accordance with standards of care established by the American Nurses Association, state regulations, and facility policy. Fundamentals of Nursing The kilocalorie (kcal) is a unit of energy measurement that represents the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 kilogram of water 1º C. Fundamentals of Nursing As nutrients move through the body, they undergo ingestion, digestion, absorption, transport, cell metabolism, and excretion. Fundamentals of Nursing The body metabolizes alcohol at a fixed rate regardless of serum concentration. Fundamentals of Nursing In an alcoholic beverage, its proof reflects its percentage of alcohol multiplied by 2. For example, a 100-proof beverage contains 50% alcohol. Fundamentals of Nursing A living will is a witnessed document that states a patient’s desire for certain types of care and treatment, which depends on the patient’s wishes and views and quality of life. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should flush a peripheral heparin lock every 8 hours (if it wasn’t used during the previous 8 hours) and as needed with normal saline solution to maintain patency. Fundamentals of Nursing Quality assurance is a method of determining whether nursing actions and practices meet established standards. Fundamentals of Nursing The five rights of medication administration are the right patient, right medication, right dose, right route of administration, and the right time. Fundamentals of Nursing Outside of the hospital setting, only the sublingual and transligual forms of nitroglycerin should be used to relieve acute anginal attacks. Fundamentals of Nursing The implementation phase of the nursing process involves recording the patient’s response to the nursing plan, putting the nursing plan into action, delegating specific nursing interventions, and coordinating the patient’s activities. Fundamentals of Nursing The Patient’s Bill of Rights offers guidance and protection to patients by stating the responsibilities of the hospital and its staff toward patients and their families during hospitalization. Fundamentals of Nursing To minimize the omissions and distortion of facts, the nurse should record information as soon as it is gathered. Fundamentals of Nursing When assessing a patient’s health history, the nurse should record the current illness chronologically, beginning with the onset of the problem and continuing to the present. Fundamentals of Nursing Drug administration is a dependent activity. The nurse can administer or withhold a drug only with the doctor’s permission. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse shouldn’t give false assurance to a patient. Fundamentals of Nursing After receiving preoperative medication, a patient isn’t competent to sign an informed consent form. Fundamentals of Nursing When lifting a patient, a nurse uses the weight of her body instead of the strength in her arms. Fundamentals of Nursing A nurse may clarify a doctor’s explanation to a patient about an operation or a procedure but must refer questions about informed consent to the doctor. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse shouldn’t use her thumb to take a patient’s pulse rate because the thumb has a pulse of its own and may be confused with the patient’s pulse. Fundamentals of Nursing An inspiration and an expiration count as one respiration. Fundamentals of Nursing Normal respirations are known as eupnea. Fundamentals of Nursing During a blood pressure measurement, the patient should rest the arm against a surface because using muscle strength to hold up the arm may raise the blood pressure. Fundamentals of Nursing Major unalterable risk factors for coronary artery disease include heredity, sex, race, and age. Fundamentals of Nursing Inspection is the most frequently used assessment technique. Fundamentals of Nursing Family members of an elderly person in a long-term care facility should transfer some personal items (such as photographs, a favorite chair, and knickknacks) to the person’s room to provide a homey atmosphere. Fundamentals of Nursing The upper respiratory tract warms and humidifies inspired air and plays a role in taste, smell, and mastication. Fundamentals of Nursing Signs of accessory muscle use include shoulder elevation, intercostal muscle retraction, and scalene and sternocleidosmastoid muscle use during respiration. Fundamentals of Nursing When patients use axillary crutches, their palms should bear the brunt of the weight. Fundamentals of Nursing Activities of daily living include eating, bathing, dressing, grooming, toileting, and interacting socially. Fundamentals of Nursing Normal gait has two phases: the stance phase, in which the patient’s foot rests on the ground, and the swing phase, in which that patient’s foot moves forward. Fundamentals of Nursing The phases of mitosis are prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should follow standard precautions in the routine care of all patients. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use the bell of the stethoscope to listen for venous hums and cardiac murmurs. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse can assess a patient’s general knowledge by asking questions such as “Who is the president for the United States?” Fundamentals of Nursing Cold packs are applied for the first 20 to 48 hours after an injury; then heat is applied. During cold application, the pack is applied for 20 minutes and then removed for 10 to 15 minutes to prevent reflex dilation (rebound phenomenon) and frostbite injury. Fundamentals of Nursing The pons is located above the medulla and consists of white matter (sensory and motor tracts) and gray matter (reflex centers). Fundamentals of Nursing The autonomic nervous system controls the smooth muscles. Fundamentals of Nursing A correctly written patient goal expresses the desired patient behavior, criteria for measurement, time frame for achievement, and conditions under which the behavior will occur. It is developed in collaboration with the patient. Fundamentals of Nursing The optic disk is yellowish pink and circular with a distinct border. Fundamentals of Nursing A primary disability results from a pathologic process; a secondary disability, from inactivity. Nurses usually are held liable for failing to keep an accurate count of sponges and other devices during surgery. Fundamentals of Nursing The best dietary sources of vitamin B6 are liver, kidney, pork, soybeans, corn, and whole-grain cereals. Fundamentals of Nursing Iron-rich foods, such as organ meats, nuts, legumes, dried fruit, leafy vegetables, eggs, and whole gains, generally have low water content. Fundamentals of Nursing Collaboration refers to joint communication and decision making between nurses and doctors designed to meet patients’ needs by integrating the care regimens of both professions in one comprehensive approach. Fundamentals of Nursing Bradycardia refers to a heart rate of fewer than 60 beats/minute. Fundamentals of Nursing A nursing diagnosis is a statement of a patient’s actual or potential health problems that can be resolved, diminished, or otherwise changed by nursing interventions. Fundamentals of Nursing During the assessment phase of the nursing process, the nurse collects and analyzes three types of data: health history, physical examination, and laboratory and diagnostic test data. Fundamentals of Nursing The patient’s health history consists primarily of subjective data, information supplied by patient. Fundamentals of Nursing The physical examination includes objective data obtained by inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation. Fundamentals of Nursing When documenting patient care, the nurse should write legibly, use only standard abbreviations, and sign every entry. The nurse should never destroy or attempt to obliterate documentation or leave vacant lines. Fundamentals of Nursing Factors that affect body temperature include time of day, age, physical activity, phase of menstrual cycle, and pregnancy. Fundamentals of Nursing The most accessible and commonly used artery for measuring a patient’s pulse rate is the radial artery, which is compressed against the radius to take the pulse rate. Fundamentals of Nursing The normal pulse rate of a resting adult is 60 to 100 beats/minute. The rate is slightly faster in women than in men and much faster in children than in adults. Fundamentals of Nursing Laboratory test results are an objective form of assessment data. Fundamentals of Nursing The measurement systems most often used in clinical practice are the metric system, apothecaries’ system, and household system. Fundamentals of Nursing Before signing an informed consent, a patient should know whether other treatment options are available and should understand what will occur during the preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative phase; the risk involved; and the possible complications. The patient also should have a general idea of the time required from surgery to recovery and should have an opportunity to ask questions. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient must sign a separate informed consent form for each procedure. Fundamentals of Nursing During percussion, the nurse uses quick, sharp tapping of the fingers or hands against body surfaces to produce sounds (that helps determine the size, shape, position, and density of underlying organs and tissues), elicit tenderness, or assess reflexes. Fundamentals of Nursing Ballottement is a form of light palpation involving gentle, repetitive bouncing of tissues against the hand and feeling their rebound. Fundamentals of Nursing A foot cradle keeps bed linen off the patient’s feet, which prevent skin irritation and breakdown, especially in a patient with peripheral vascular disease or neuropathy. Fundamentals of Nursing If the patient is a married minor, permission to perform a procedure can be obtained form the patient’s spouse. Fundamentals of Nursing Gastric lavage is the flushing of the stomach and removal of ingested substances through a nasogastric tube. It can be used to treat poisoning or drug overdose. Fundamentals of Nursing During the evaluation step of the nursing process, the nurse assesses the patient’s response to therapy. Fundamentals of Nursing Bruits commonly indicate a life- or limb-threatening vascular disease. Fundamentals of Nursing O.U. means each eye; O.D., right eye; and O.S, left eye. Fundamentals of Nursing To remove a patient’s artificial eye, the nurse depresses the lower lid. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use a warm saline solution to clean an artificial eye. Fundamentals of Nursing A thready pulse is very fine and scarcely perceptible. Fundamentals of Nursing Axillary temperature usually is 1º F lower than oral temperature. Fundamentals of Nursing After suctioning a tracheostomy tube, the nurse must document the color, amount, consistency, and odor of secretions. Fundamentals of Nursing On a medication prescription, the abbreviation p.c. means that the medication should be administered after meals. Fundamentals of Nursing After bladder irrigation, the nurse should document the amount, color, and clarity of the urine and the presence of clots or sediment. Fundamentals of Nursing Laws regarding patient self-determination vary from state to state. Therefore, the nurse must be familiar with the laws of the state in which she works. Fundamentals of Nursing Gauge refers to the inside diameter of a needle. The smaller the gauge, the larger the diameter. Fundamentals of Nursing An adult normally has 32 permanent teeth. Fundamentals of Nursing After turning a patient, the nurse should document the position used, time turned, and skin assessment findings. Fundamentals of Nursing PERRLA is an abbreviation for normal pupil assessment findings: pupils equal, round, and reactive to light with accommodation. Fundamentals of Nursing When purcussing a patient’s chest for postural drainage, the nurse’s hands should be cupped. Fundamentals of Nursing When measuring a patient’s pulse, the nurse should assess the rate, rhythms, quality, and strength. Fundamentals of Nursing Before transferring a patient from a bed to a wheelchair, the nurse should push the wheelchair’s footrests to the sides and lock its wheels. Fundamentals of Nursing When assessing respirations, the nurse should document the rate, rhythm, depth, and quality. Fundamentals of Nursing For a subcutaneous injection, the nurse should use a ⅝" 25G needle. Fundamentals of Nursing The notation “AA & O x 3” indicates that the patient is awake, alert, and oriented to person (knows who he is), place (knows where he is), and time (knows the date and time). Fundamentals of Nursing Fluid intake includes all fluids taken by mouth, including foods that are liquid at room temperature, such as gelatin, custard, and ice cream; I.V. fluids; and fluids administered in feeding tubes. Fluid output includes urine, vomitus, and drainage (such as from a nasogastric tube or from a wound) as well as blood loss, diarrhea or stool, and perspiration. Fundamentals of Nursing After administering an intradermal injection, the nurse shouldn’t massage the area because massage can irritate the site and interfere with results. Fundamentals of Nursing When administering an intradermal injection, the nurse should hold the syringe almost flat against the patient’s skin (at about a 15-degree angle) with the bevel up. Fundamentals of Nursing To obtain an accurate blood pressure, the nurse should inflate the manometer 20 to 30 mm Hg above the disappearance of the radial pulse before releasing the cuff pressure. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should count an irregular pulse for 1 full minute. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient who is vomiting while lying down should be placed in a lateral position to prevent aspiration of vomitus. Fundamentals of Nursing Prophylaxis is disease prevention. Fundamentals of Nursing Body alignment is achieved when the body parts are in proper relation to their natural position. Fundamentals of Nursing Trust is the foundation of a nurse-patient relationship. Fundamentals of Nursing Blood pressure in the force exerted by the circulating volume of blood on arterial walls. Fundamentals of Nursing Malpractice refers to the professional’s wrongful conduct, improper discharge of duties, or failure to meet standers of care, which causes harm to another. Fundamentals of Nursing As a general rule, nurses can’t refuse a patient care assignment; however, they may refuse to participate in abortions in most states. Fundamentals of Nursing A nurse can be found negligent if a patient is injured because the nurse failed to perform a duty that a reasonable and prudent person would perform or because the nurse performed an act that a reasonable and prudent person wouldn’t perform. Fundamentals of Nursing States have enacted Good Samaritan laws to encourage professionals to provide medical assistance at the scene of an accident without fear of a lawsuit arising from such assistance. These laws don’t apply to care provided in a health care facility. Fundamentals of Nursing A doctor should sign verbal and telephone orders within the time established by institutional policy, usually within 24 hours. Fundamentals of Nursing A competent adult has the right to refuse lifesaving medical treatment; however, the individual should be fully informed of the consequences of this refusal. Fundamentals of Nursing Although a patient’s health record or chart is the health care facility’s physical property, its contents belong to the patient. Fundamentals of Nursing Before a patient’s record can be released to a third party, the patient or patient’s legal guardian must give written consent. Fundamentals of Nursing Under the Controlled Substances Act, every dose of a controlled drug dispensed by the pharmacy must be counted for, whether the dose was administered to a particular patient or discarded accidentally. Fundamentals of Nursing A nurse can’t perform duties that violate a rule or regulation established by a state licensing board even if it is authorized by a health care facility or doctor. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should select a private room, preferably with a door that can be closed, to minimize interruptions during a patient interview. Fundamentals of Nursing In categorizing nursing diagnosis, the nurse should address actual life-threatening problems first, followed by potentially life-threatening concerns. Fundamentals of Nursing The major components of a nursing care plan are outcome criteria (patient goals) and nursing interventions. Fundamentals of Nursing Standing orders, or protocols, establish guidelines for treating a particular disease or set of symptoms. Fundamentals of Nursing In assessing a patient’s heart, the nurse normally finds the point of maximal impulse at the fifth intercostals space near the apex. Fundamentals of Nursing The S1 sound heard on auscultation is caused by closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves. Fundamentals of Nursing To maintain package sterility, the nurse should open the wrapper’s top flap away from the body, open side flap by touching only the outer part of the wrapper, and open the final flap by grasping the turned-down corner and pulling it toward the body. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse shouldn’t use a cotton-tipped applicator to dry a patient’s ear canal or remove wax because it may force cerumen against the tympanic membrane. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient’s identification bracelet should remain in place until the patient has been discharged from the health care facility and has left the premises. Fundamentals of Nursing The Controlled Substances Act designated five categories, or schedules, that classify controlled drugs according to their abuse liability. Fundamentals of Nursing Schedule I drugs, such as heroin, have a high abuse potential and have no currently accepted medical use in the United States. Fundamentals of Nursing Schedule II drugs, such as morphine, opium, and meperidine (Demerol), have a high abuse potential but have currently accepted medical uses. Their use may lead to physical or psychological dependence. Fundamentals of Nursing Schedule III drugs, such as paregoric and butabarbital (Butisol), have a lower abuse potential than Schedule I or II drugs. Abuse of Schedule III drugs may lead to moderate or low physical or psychological dependence, or both. Fundamentals of Nursing Schedule IV drugs, such as chloral hydrate, have a low abuse potential compared with Schedule III drugs. Fundamentals of Nursing Schedule V drugs, such as cough syrups that contain codeine, have the lowest abuse potential of the controlled substances. Fundamentals of Nursing Activities of daily living are actions that the patient must perform every day to provide self-care and interact with society. Fundamentals of Nursing Testing of the six cardinal fields of gaze evaluates the function of all extraocular muscles and cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. Fundamentals of Nursing The six types of heart murmurs are graded from 1 to 6. A grade 6 heart murmur can be heard with stethoscope slightly raised from the chest. Fundamentals of Nursing The most important goal to include in a care plan is the patient’s goal. Fundamentals of Nursing Fruits are high in fiber and low in protein and should be omitted from a low-residue diet. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use an objective scale to assess and quantify pain because postoperative pain varies greatly among individuals. Fundamentals of Nursing Postmortem care includes cleaning and preparing the deceased patient for family viewing, arranging transportation to the morgue or funeral home, and determining the disposition of belongings. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should provide honest answers to the patient’s questions. Fundamentals of Nursing Milk shouldn’t be included in a clear liquid diet. Fundamentals of Nursing Consistency in nursing personnel is paramount when caring for a child, and infant, or a confused patient. Fundamentals of Nursing The hypothalamus secretes vasopressin and oxytocin, which are stored in the pituitary gland. Fundamentals of Nursing The three membranes that enclose that brain and spinal cord are the dura mater, pia mater, and arachnoid. Fundamentals of Nursing A nasogastric tube is used to remove fluid and gas from the small intestine preoperatively or postoperatively. Fundamentals of Nursing Psychologists, physical therapists, and chiropractors aren’t authorized to write prescriptions for medication. Fundamentals of Nursing The area around a stoma should be cleaned with mild soap and water. Fundamentals of Nursing Vegetables have a high fiber content. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use a tuberculin syringe to administer an S.C. injection of less than 1 ml. Fundamentals of Nursing For adults, S.C. injections require a 25G 1" needle; for infants, children, elderly, or very thin patients, they require a 25G to 27G ½" needle. Fundamentals of Nursing Before administering medication, the nurse should identify the patient by checking the identification band and asking the patient to state his name. Fundamentals of Nursing To clean the skin before an injection, the nurse should use a sterile alcohol swab and wipe from the center of the site outward in a circular motion. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse always should inject heparin deep into S.C. tissue at a 90-degree angle (perpendicular to the skin) to prevent skin irritation. Fundamentals of Nursing If blood is aspirated into the syringe before an I.M. injection, the nurse should withdraw the needle, prepare another syringe, and repeat the procedure. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse shouldn’t cut the patient’s hair without written consent from the patient or an appropriate relative. Fundamentals of Nursing If bleeding occurs after an injection, the nurse should apply pressure until the bleeding stops; if bruising occurs, the nurse should monitor the site for an enlarging hematoma. Fundamentals of Nursing When providing hair and scalp care, the nurse should begin combing at the end of the hair and work toward the head. Fundamentals of Nursing Frequency of patient hair care depends on the length and texture of the hair, duration of hospitalization, and patient’s condition. Fundamentals of Nursing Proper hearing aid function requires careful handling during insertion and removal, regular cleaning of the ear piece to prevent wax buildup, and prompt replacement of dead batteries. Fundamentals of Nursing The hearing aid marked with a blue dot is for the left ear; the one with the red dot is for the right ear. Fundamentals of Nursing A hearing aid shouldn’t be exposed to heat or humidity and shouldn’t be immersed in water. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should instruct a patient not to use hair spray while wearing a hearing aid. Fundamentals of Nursing The five branches of pharmacology are pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, pharmacotherapeutics, toxicology, and pharmacognosy. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should remove heel protectors every 8 hours to inspect the foot for signs of skin breakdown. Fundamentals of Nursing The purpose of heat application is to promote vasodilation, which reduces pain caused by inflammation. Fundamentals of Nursing A sutured surgical incision is an example of healing by first intention (healing directly, without granulation). Fundamentals of Nursing Healing by secondary intention (healing by granulation) is closure of the wound by the granulation tissue filling the defect and allowing reepithelialization to occur, beginning at the wound edges and continuing to the center, until the entire wound is covered. Fundamentals of Nursing Keloid formation is an abnormality in healing characterized by overgrowth of scar tissue at the wound site. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should administer procaine penicillin by deep I.M. injection in the upper outer portion of the buttocks in the adult or in the midlateral thigh in the child. The nurse shouldn’t massage the injection site. Fundamentals of Nursing The ascending colostomy drains fluid feces; the descending colostomy drains solid fecal matter. Fundamentals of Nursing A folded towel (called a scrotal bridge) can provide scrotal support for the patient with scrotal edema caused by vasectomy, epididymitis, or orchitis. Fundamentals of Nursing When giving an injection to the patient with a bleeding disorder, the nurse should use a small-gauge needle and apply pressure to the site for 5 minutes after the injection. Fundamentals of Nursing Platelets are the smallest and most fragile formed element of the blood and are essential for coagulation. Fundamentals of Nursing To insert a nasogastric tube, the nurse should first instruct the patient to tilt the head back slightly and then insert the tube. When the tube is felt curving at the pharynx, the nurse should tell the patient to tilt the head forward to close the trachea and open the esophagus by swallowing. (Sips of water can facilitate this action.) Fundamentals of Nursing According to families whose loved ones are in intensive care units, their four most important needs are to have questions answered honestly, to be assured that the best possible car is being provided, to know the prognosis, and to feel there is hope. Fundamentals of Nursing A double-bind communication when the verbal message contradicts the nonverbal message and the receiver is unsure of which message to respond to. Fundamentals of Nursing A nonjudgmental attitude displayed by the nurse demonstrates that she neither approves nor disapproves of the patient. Fundamentals of Nursing Target symptoms are those that the patient and others find most distressing. Fundamentals of Nursing Advise the patient to take aspirin on an empty stomach with a full glass of water and to avoid foods with acid such as coffee, citrus fruits, and cola. Fundamentals of Nursing For every patient problem, there is a nursing diagnosis; for every nursing diagnosis, there is a goal; and for every goal, there are interventions designed to make the goal a reality. The keys to answering examination questions correctly are identifying the problem presented, formulating a goal for that specific problem, and then selecting the intervention from the choices provided that will enable the patient to reach that goal. Fundamentals of Nursing Fidelity means loyalty and can be shown as a commitment to the profession of nursing and to the patient. Fundamentals of Nursing Giving an I.M. injection against the patient’s will and without legal authority is battery. Fundamentals of Nursing An example of a third-party payor is an insurance company. Fundamentals of Nursing On-call medication should be given within 5 minutes of receipt of the call. Fundamentals of Nursing Generally, the best method to determine the cultural or spiritual needs of the patient is to ask him. Fundamentals of Nursing An incident report shouldn’t be made part of the patient’s record but is an in-house document for the purpose of correcting the problem. Fundamentals of Nursing Critical pathways are a multidisciplinary guideline for patient care. Fundamentals of Nursing When prioritizing nursing diagnoses, use this hierarchy: (1) problems associated with airway, (2) those concerning breathing, and (3) those related to circulation. Fundamentals of Nursing The two nursing diagnoses with the highest priority that the nurse can assign are Ineffective airway clearance and Ineffective breathing pattern. Fundamentals of Nursing A subjective sign that a sitz bath has been effective is that patient expresses a decrease in pain or discomfort. Fundamentals of Nursing For the nursing diagnosis Diversional activity deficit to be valid, the patient must make the statement that he’s “bored, there is nothing to do” or words to that effect. Fundamentals of Nursing The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for an individual who doesn’t speak English is Communication, impaired, related to inability to speak dominant language (English). Fundamentals of Nursing The family of the patient who has been diagnosed as hearing impaired should be instructed to face the individual when they speak to him. Fundamentals of Nursing Up to age 3, the pinna should be pulled down and back to straighten the eustachian tube before instilling medication. Fundamentals of Nursing When administering eyedrops, the nurse should waste the first drop and instill the medication in the lower conjunctival sac to prevent injury to the cornea. Fundamentals of Nursing When administering eye ointment, the nurse should waste the first bead of medication and then apply the medication from the inner to the outer canthus. Fundamentals of Nursing When removing gloves and mask, the gloves, which most likely contain pathogens and are soiled, should be removed first. Fundamentals of Nursing Crutches should placed 6" (15 cm) in front of the patient and 6" to the side to assume a tripod position. Fundamentals of Nursing Listening is the most effective communication technique. Fundamentals of Nursing Process recording is a method of evaluating one’s communication effectiveness. Fundamentals of Nursing When feeding the elderly, limit high-carbohydrate foods because of the risk of glucose intolerance. Fundamentals of Nursing Passive range of motion maintains joint mobility whereas resistive exercises increase muscle mass. Fundamentals of Nursing Isometric exercises are performed on an extremity in a cast. Fundamentals of Nursing A back rub is an example of the gate-control theory of pain. Fundamentals of Nursing Anything below the waist is considered unsterile, a sterile field becomes unsterile when it comes in contact with nay unsterile item, a sterile field must be continuously monitored, and the 1" (2.5 cm) border around a sterile field is considered unsterile. Fundamentals of Nursing A “shift to the left” is evident when there is an increase in immature cells (bands) in the blood to fight an infection. Fundamentals of Nursing A “shift to the right” is evident when there is an increase in mature cells in the blood as seen in advanced liver diseases and pernicious anemia. Fundamentals of Nursing Before administering preoperative medication, make sure that an informed consent form has been signed and attached to the patient’s record. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should spend no more than 30 minutes per 8-hour shift in providing care to the patient with a radiation implant. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should stand near the patient’s shoulders for cervical implants and at the foot of the bed for head and neck implants. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should never be assigned to care for more than one patient with radiation implants. Fundamentals of Nursing Long-handled forceps and a lead-lined container should be in the room of the patient who has a radiation implant. Fundamentals of Nursing Generally, patients who have the same infection and are in strict isolation can share the same room. Fundamentals of Nursing Diseases requiring strict isolation include chickenpox, diphtheria, and viral hemorrhagic fever such as Marburg virus disease. Fundamentals of Nursing For the patient abiding by Jewish custom, milk and meat shouldn’t be served in the same meal. Fundamentals of Nursing Whether the patient can perform a procedure (psychomotor domain of learning) is a better indicator of the effectiveness of patient teaching than whether the patient can simply state the steps of the procedure (cognitive domain of learning). Fundamentals of Nursing Developmental stages according to Erik Erikson are trust versus mistrust (birth to 18 months), autonomy versus shame and doubt (18 months to 3 years), initiative versus guilt (3 to 5 years), industry versus inferiority (5 to 12 years), identity versus identity diffusion (12 to 18 years), intimacy versus isolation (18 to 25 years), generativity versus stagnation (25 to 60 years), and ego integrity versus despair (older than 60 years). Fundamentals of Nursing Face the hearing impaired patient when communicating with him. Fundamentals of Nursing A proper nursing intervention for the spouse of the patient who has suffered a serious incapacitating disease is to assist him in mobilizing a support system. Fundamentals of Nursing Hyperpyrexia refers to extreme elevation in temperature above 106º F (41.1º C). Fundamentals of Nursing
Showing posts with label Maternal Nursing. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Maternal Nursing. Show all posts

RISK PREGNANCY

I. BLEEDING IN PREGNANCY

Table 9. Outline of Classification

I. First Trimester Bleeding
A. Abortion
1. Spontaneous
a. Threatened
b. Imminent
c. Complete
d. Incomplete
2. Induced
a. Therapeutic
b. Illegal
B. Ectopic Pregnancy
1. Tubal – most common
2. Cervical
3. Ovarian
4. Abdominal

II. Second Trimester Bleeding
A. Hydatidiform Mole
B. Incompetent Cervical Os

III. Third Trimester Bleeding
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placenta

A. ABORTION – any interruption in pregnancy before the age of viability.
1. Spontaneous – occurs from natural causes, blighted ovum/germ plasma defect (most common cause – it is nature’s way of eliminating the birth of a congenitally defective baby); implantation or hormonal abnormality; following trauma, infection (e.g., rubella, influenza) or emotional problems
a. Threatened
• Symptom: bright red vaginal bleeding which is moderate in amount
• Management:
• Complete bed rest for 24-48 hours; if bleeding will stop it usually steps within this time
• Coitus is restricted for 2 weeks after bleeding has stopped in order to prevent further bleeding or infection
• Endocrine/hormonal therapy
• Advise patient to save all pads, clots and expelled tissues
b. Imminent/inevitable
• Symptom: Bright red vaginal bleeding which is moderate in amount and accompanied by uterine contractions and cervical dilatation. Loss of the products of conception is inevitable.
• Management: depends on whether it is
• Complete abortion – all products of conception are expelled; bleeding is minimal and self-limiting. No intervention is therefore needed.
• Incomplete abortion – part of the conceptus, usually the fetus, is expelled, but membranes or placental fragments are retained. D & C is indicated as management.
c. Missed abortion – fetus dies in utero but is not expelled. Usually discovered at a prenatal visit when fundic height is measure and no increase is demonstrated or when previously heard fetal heart tones are no longer present. In 2 weeks’ time, signs of abortion should occur; otherwise, labor will have to be induced to prevent hypofibrinoginemia or sepsis.
2. Induced – is never allowed in the Philippines
a. Therapeutic – performed by a doctor in a controlled hospital or clinic setting for a medical or a legal reason. Also known as medical, planned or legal abortion.
b. Illegal

B. ECTOPIC PREGNANCY – any gestation located outside the uterine cavity.
1. Signs and symptoms – since the wall of the Fallopian tube is not sufficiently elastic, it ruptures within the first 12 weeks of gestation as it can no longer give way for the growing fetus:
a. peri-umbilical colicky pain which mimics appendicitis (in bleeding wherein there is no exit or egress of blood from the body, pain is the outstanding symptom; this pain differentiates ectopic pregnancy from abortion).
b. may radiate to shoulder & neck if internal bleeding reach level of diaphragm
c. (+) xxxxxxxxx sign – xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
d. Excruciating pain when cervix is moved on IE
e. Signs of shock: falling BP, tachycardia, lightheadedness
• Ruptured ectopic pregnancy is an emergency situation.
2. Diagnosis:
a. Pelvic exam-reveal adnexae or cul de sac mass/cul de sac of Douglas
b. Culdocentesis-aspirate fluid
c. Culdotomy
d. Laparoscopy
e. D&C
3. Management:
a. Laparotomy – if Fallopian tube can still be repaired and preserved, but the pregnancy has to be terminated
b. Salpingectomy + blood transfusion
c. Salphingo-oopherectomy
3. Nursing care – combat shock:
a. Elevate foot of the bed
b. Maintain body heat by hot water bottles and blankets

C. HYDATIDIFORM MOLE – developmental anomaly of the placenta resulting in proliferation and degeneration of the chorionic villi
1. Incidence: it is the most common lesion anteceding choriocarcinoma. It occurs most often in women:
a. From low socioeconomic backgrounds with low protein intake
b. Over 35 years and under 18 years of age
2. Signs and symptoms:
a. Because of rapid proliferation of placental tissues and, therefore, high levels of HCG:
• Highly positive urine test for pregnancy (that is why a positive pregnancy test cannot be considered a positive sign of pregnancy)
• Nausea and vomiting is usually marked
• Rapid increase in fundic height
b. Toxemia signs and symptoms appear before the 24th week of gestation
c. No fetal heart tones
d. Vaginal bleeding seen as clear, fluid-filled grape-sized vesicles
4. Management:
a. D & C to evacuate the mole
b. Prophylactic course of Methotrexate, the drug of choice for choriocarcinoma
c. Urine testing for one year to find out if new villi are developing. Contraceptives (but not the pills) have to used to as not to confuse the results.

D. INCOMPETENT CERVICAL OS – cervix dilates prematurely. It is the chief cause of habitual abortion (=3 or more consecutive abortions)
1. Causes:
a. Congenital developmental factors
b. Endocrine factors
c. Trauma to the cervix
2. Signs and symptoms:
a. Presence of show and uterine contractions
b. Rupture of membrane
c. Painless cervical dilatation
3. Management: McDonal/Shirodkar-Barter procedure – a cerclage procedure wherein purse-string sutures are place around the cervix on the 14th-18th week of gestation. These are removed during vaginal delivery (if McDonald’s method, since sutures are temporary), or the patient delivers by Cesarean section (if Shirodkar method, since sutures are permanent).

E. PLACENTA PREVIA – low implantation of the placenta so that it is in the way of the presenting part.
1. Predisposing factors:
a. Increasing parity
b. Advanced maternal age
c. Rapid succession of pregnancies
2. Types:
a. Low lying
b. Partial
c. Complete
3. Diagnosis – made by means of symptoms and ultrasound – also known as Ultrasonic Echo Sounding or Sonar, uses intermittent waves of very high frequency (above audible range) to “picture the fetus”. Sound waves are projected towards the mother’s abdomen, are reflected back and converted into electrical impulses and recorded on a permanent graph paper.
a. Preparation:
• Explain the procedure to the patient, informing her that it is painless and there are no known ill effects
• Empty the bladder BUT ask the patient to take 6 glasses of water afterwards in order to dilate the bladder. A full bladder displaces the bowel and, therefore, permits better visualization of the pelvis and its contents.
b. Clinical uses:
• Diagnose pregnancy as early as 5-6 weeks gestational age
• Can establish that the fetus is increasing in size and, therefore, can predict EDC
• Can determine gestational age by measuring the biparietal diameter of the fetal skill (if it is more than 8.5 cm, it more or less weighs more than 2500 gms); therefore, can diagnose intrauterine growth retardation, hydrocephaly, microcephaly and anencephaly
• Can demonstrate size and growth rate of the amniotic sac; therefore, can identify polyhydramnic, oligohydramnios
• Can confirm presence, size and location of the placenta; therefore, is valuable in diagnosing previa and H-mole
• Can diagnose multiple pregnancy
• Can visualize ascites, polycystic kidneys, ovarian cysts, etc.
• Can determine baby’s sex (during third trimester and if in cephalic presentation)
4. First and most constant symptom: painless bright red vaginal bleeding due to tearing of placental attachment as a consequence of the dilatation of the internal os
5. Management:
a. Complete bed rest
b. Monitor vital signs of the mother and the fetal heart rate
c. Prepare oxygen and blood
d. No attempt is made at doing internal exam. If ever it is to be done, it is done in a double set-up (done in the operating room wherein the patient has already signed the consent form, preop medications have been given, abdominal prep has been done, etc., so that if the placenta is accidentally detached because of the IE, CS can be done immediately).
6. Complications:
a. Hemorrhage
b. Infection
c. Prematurity

F. ABRUPTIO PLACENTA – premature separation of the placenta.
1. Predisposing factors:
a. Maternal hypertension or toxemia
b. Increasing parity and maternal age
c. Sudden release of amniotic fluid
d. Short umbilical cord
e. Hypofibrinoginemia
2. Signs and symptoms:
a. Severe, sharp, knife-like, stabbing pain high in the fundus
b. Hard, beardlike uterus; rigid abdomen
c. Signs of shock
d. Concealed bleeding, if extensive, causes the uterus to lose its ability to contract. It becomes ecchymotic and copper-colored, called Couvelaire uterus, causing severe bleeding. Since the uterus no longer has the ability to contract, hysterectomy will have to be done.

II. TOXEMIA/PREGNANCY-INDUCED HYPERTENSION (PIH) – a vascular disease of unknown cause which occurs anytime after the 24th week of gestation up to 2 weeks post-partum. It has the following triad of symptoms: hypertension, edema and proteinuria (specifically albuminuria).
A. Predisposing factors:
1. Age – primis under 20 and over 30 years
2. Gravida – 5 or more pregnancies
3. Low socioeconomic status (SES)
4. Multiple pregnancy
5. With underlying medical conditions, e.g., heart disease, hypertension or diabetes.
B. Pathogenesis:
C. Diagnosis: roll-over test – assess the probability of developing toxemia when performed between the 28th and 32nd week of pregnancy.
1. Procedure:
a. Patient lies in lateral recumbent position for 15 minutes until BP has stabilized
b. Then rolls over to back position
c. BP is taken at 1 minute and 5 minutes after having rolled over.
2. Interpretation: if diastolic increases 20 mm Hg, or more, patient is prone to toxemia.

Table 10. Classification

I. Acute toxemia – symptoms appear after 24th week of gestation
A. Preeclampsia:
1. Mild
2. Severe
B. Eclampsia
II. Chronic Hypertension with pregnancy
III. Unclassified

D. Details:
1. Preeclampsia
a. Underlying causes:
• Insufficient production of blood and platelets
• Generalized vasoconstriction and associated microangiopathy (-disease of capillaries)
• Abnormal retention of sodium and water by body tissues
b. Medical complications:
• Cerebrovascular hemorrhage
• Acute pulmonary edema
• Acute renal failure
c. Types:
• Mild preeclampsia
• Signs and symptoms:
• Sudden, excessive weight gain of 1-5 lbs per week (earliest sing of preeclampsia) due to edema which is persistent and found in the upper half of the body (e.g., inability to wear the wedding ring)
• Systolic BP of 140, or an increase of 30 mmHg, or more and a diastolic of 90, or a rise of 15 mmHg or more, taken twice, 6 hours apart
• Proteinuria of 0.5 gm/liter or more
• Severe preeclampsia
• Signs and symptoms
• BP of 160/110 mmHg
• Proteinuria of 5 gm/liter or more in 24 hours
• Oliguria of 400 ml or less in 24 hours (normal urine output in 24 hours = 1560 ml)
• Cerebral or visual disturbances
• Pulmonary edema and cyanosis
• Epigastric pain (considered an aura to the development of convulsions)
• Anarsavea/pitting edema; dependent type
• Headache
• Blurred vision
• Oliguria
• Epigastric pain (Aura)
2. Eclampsia – the main difference between preeclampsia and eclampsia is the presence of convulsions in eclampsia.
a. Signs and symptoms – as in preeclampsia plus:
• Increased BUN
• Increased uric acid
• Decreased CO2 combining power

E. Management:
1. Complete bed rest – sodium tends to be excreted at a more rapid rate if the patient is at rest. Energy conservation is important in decreasing metabolic rate to minimize demands for oxygen. Lowered oxygen tension in toxemia is the result of vasoconstriction and decreased blood flow that diminishes the amount of nutrients and oxygen in the cells. In any condition wherein there is a possibility of convulsions, bed rest should be in a darkened, non-stimulating environment with minimal handling.
2. Diet:
a. For mile preeclampsia – high protein, high carbohydrate, moderate salt restriction (no added table salt, (including “bagoong”, “patis” and “toyo”), dired fish (e.g., “daing” and “tuyo”), canned goods, bottled drinks, preserved foods and cold cuts)
b. For severe preeclampsia – highprotein, high carbohydrate and salt-poor (3 gms of salt per day)
3. Medications:
a. Diuretics – hourly urine output should be at least 20-30 ml (normally 50-60 ml per hour). E.g., chlorothiazide/Diuril.
• Pharmacologic effect: decrease reabsorption of sodium and chloride at the proximal tubules, thereby increasing renal excretion of sodium, chloride and water, including potassium.
• Side effects: fatigue and muscle weakness due to fluid and electrolyte imbalance
• Nursing care: closely monitor intake and output
b. Digitalis – if with heart failure
• Pharmacologic action: Increase the force and contraction of the heart, thereby decreasing heart rate. Should not be given, therefore, if heart rate is below 60/minute. (Implication: take the heart rate before giving the drug.)
c. Potassium supplements – any patient receiving diuretics are prone to hypokalemia; if digitalis is given at the same time, hypokalemia increases the sensitivity of the patient to the effects of digitalis. Potassium supplements (e.g. banana) must be given to prevent cardiac arrhythmias.
d. Barbiturates – sedation by means of CNS depression
e. Analgesics: antihypertensives; antibiotics; anticonvulsants
f. Magnesium sulfate – drug of choice
• Actions:
• CNS depressant – lessens possibility of convulsions
• Vasodilator – decreases the BP
• Cathartic – it reduces edema by causing a shift of fluid from the extracellular spaces into the intestines from where the fluid can be excreted
• Dosage: 10 Gms initially, either by slow IV push over 5-10 minutes, or deep IM, 5 Gms/buttock; then IV drip of 1 Gm/hour (1 GM/100 ml D1 xxxxx) IF:
• Deep tendon reflexes are present
• Respiratory rate is at least 12 per minute
• Urine output is at least 100 ml
• Antidote for Magnesium sulfate toxicity: Calcium gluconate 10% IV to maintain cardiac and vascular tone
• Earliest sing of Magnesium sulfate toxicity: disappearance of the knee jerk/patellar reflex
4. Methods of Delivery – preferably vaginal, but it not possible, CS will have to be done
F. Prognosis: the danger of convulsions is present until 48 hours postpartum.

III. DIABETES MELLITUS – chronic hereditary disease which is characterized by hyperglycemia due to a relative insufficiency or lack of insulin from the pancreas which, in turn, leads to abnormalities in the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats.
A. Diabetogenic effects of pregnancy – many women who had no evidence of diabetes in the past develop abnormalities in glucose tolerance:
1. Decreased renal threshold for sugar that is why it is not unusual to find sugar in the urine of pregnant women
2. Increased production of adrenocorticoids, anterior pituitary hormones and thyroxins which affect carbohydrate and lipoid metabolism, thus increasing carbohydrate concentration in the blood (- hyperglycemia).
3. Rate of insulin secretion is increased BUT sensitivity of the pregnant body to insulin is decreased, i.e., insulin does not seem to be normally effective during pregnancy.
B. Attendant risks:
1. Toxemia
2. Infection
3. Hemorrhage
4. Polyhydramnios
5. Spontaneous abortion – because of vascular complication which affect placental circulation
6. Acidosis – because of nausea and vomiting. Is the chief threat to the fetus in utero.
7. Dystocia – due to excessively large baby
C. Diagnosis – made on the basis of the Glucose Tolerance Test
1. Procedure:
a. NPO after midnight
b. 2 ml of 50% glucose/3 kg of pre-pregnant body weight is given IV (oral tablet not advisable because of known decreased gastric motility and delayed absorption of sugar during pregnancy)
2. Interpretation of results:
a. If less than 100 mg – normal
b. If 100-120 mg% - possible gestational diabetes
c. If more than 120 mg% - overt gestational diabetes
D. Categories – to predict the outcome of pregnancy
1. Class A – GTT is only slightly abnormal; minimal dietary restriction; insulin not needed; fetal survival is high
2. Class C to E – have 25 % prenatal mortality
3. Class F – therapeutic abortion (in other countries) may be justified
E. Management:
1. Diet – highly individualized. Adequate glucose intake (1800-2200 calories) is necessary to prevent intrauterine growth retardation
2. Insulin requirements are likewise highly individualized, requiring close observation throughout pregnancy. Since the effects of the hormones are more pronounced during the second half of pregnancy, the insulin requirements during the 2nd and 3rd trimesters are, therefore, greater.
a. Insulin is regulated to keep urine +1 for sugar (minimal) glycosuria is necessary to prevent acidosis, but negative for acetone
b. Long-acting insulin (Ultralente) will have to be change to regular insulin (Lente) during the last few weeks of pregnancy.
3. Often delivered by CS because:
a. Baby is typically larger or maybe in distress because of placental insufficiency
b. Severe metabolic imbalances in vaginal delivery can occur because of depletion of glycogen reserved in the liver and skeletal muscles by strenuous muscular exertion during labor
4. Maximum difficulty in controlling diabetes is during the early postpartum period because of the drastic changes in hormonal levels.
F. Infant of the Diabetic Mother (IDM)
1. Is typically longer and weighs more because of:
a. Excessive supply of glucose from the mother
b. Increased production of growth hormones from the maternal pituitary
c. Increased secretion of insulin from the fetal pancreas
d. Increased action of adrenocortical hormones that favor passage of glucose from mother to fetus
2. Congenital anomalies are more often seen
3. Cushingoid appearance (puffy, but limp and lethargic)
4. More often born premature, so respiratory distress syndrome is common
5. Lose a greater proportion of weight than normal newborns because of loss of extra fluid
6. Are prone to the following complications:
a. Hypoglycemia – blood sugar level less than 30 mgs. It is the most common complication to watch for
• Cause: while inside the uterus, the fetus tends to be hyperglycemic because of maternal hyperglycemia. The fetal pancreas thus responds to the high glucose level of insulin. Following delivery, the glucose level begins to fall because the baby has been severed from the mother. Since there has been previous production of high levels of insulin, hypoglycemia develops.
• Clinical signs:
• Shrill, high-pitched cry
• Listlessness/jitterness/tremors
• Lethargy; poor suck
• Apnea; cyanosis
• Hypotonia; hypothermia
• Convulsions
• Consequence: hypoglycemia, if not treated, can lead to brain damage and even death
• Management: feed with glucose water earlier than usual or administer IV of glucose
b. Hypocalcemia – serum calcium level of less 7 mg%.
• Signs: same as hypelycemia
• Management: Calcium gluconate to prevent hypocalcemic tetany

IV. HEART DISEASE
A. Classification:
1. Class I – no limitation of physical activity
2. Class II – slight limitation of physical activity; ordinary activity causes fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea or angina
3. Class III – moderate to marked limitation of physical activity; less than ordinary activity causes fatigue, etc.
4. Class IV – unable to carry on any activity without experiencing discomfort
B. Prognosis:
1. Class I and II – normal pregnancy and delivery
2. Class III and IV – poor candidates
C. Signs and symptoms:
1. Because of increased total cardiac volume during pregnancy, heart murmurs are observed.
2. Cardiac output may become so decreased that vital organs are not perfused adequately; oxygen and nutritional requirements are not met.
3. Since the left side of the heart is not able to empty the pulmonary vessels adequately, the latter become engorged, causing pulmonary edema and hypertension. Moist cough in gravidocardiacs, therefore, is a danger sign.
4. Liver and the other organs become congested because blood returning to the heart may not be handled adequately, causing the venous pressure to rise. Fluid then escapes through the walls of engorged capillaries and cause edema or ascites.
5. Congestive heart failure is a high probability also because of the increased cardiac output during pregnancy: dyspnea, exhaustion, edema, pulse irregularities, chest pain on exertion and cyanosis of nailbeds are obvious
D. Management:
1. Bed rest – especially after the 30th week of gestation to ensure that pregnancy is carried to term or at least 36 weeks
2. Diet – should gain enough, but not to much as it would add to the workload of the heart
3. Medications:
a. Digitalis
b. Iron preparations, e.g., Fer-in-sol or Feosol – anemia should be prevented because the body compensates by increasing cardiac output, thus further increasing cardiac workload.
4. Classes III and IV are not put on lithotomy position during delivery to avoid increasing venous return. The semi-sitting position is preferred to facilitate easy respirations.
5. Anesthetic of choice is caudal anesthesia for effortless, pushless and painless delivery. Remember: Gravidocardiacs are not allowed to push with contractions (to prevent Valsalva maneuver which increase venous return to an already weak, damaged heart). Low forceps, therefore, is the best method of delivery.
6. Ergotrate and other oxytocics, scopolamine, diethylstilbestrol and oral contraceptives are contraindicated because they cause fluid retention and promote thromboembolization.
7. Most critical period – the period immediately foll0owing delivery because the 30%-50% increase in blood volume during pregnancy will be reabsorbed into the mother’s circulation in a matter of 5-10 minutes and the weak heart must make rapid adjustment to this change.

VI. MULTIPLE PREGNANCY (Twin Pregnancy)
A. Classification:
1. Monozygotic/Identical – twins begin with a single ovum and sperm, but in the process of fusion or in one of the first cell divisions, the zygote divides into two identical individuals.
a. Characteristics:
• Always of the same sex
• With 2 amnions, 2 chorion, 2 umbilical cords and 2 placentas fused as one
b. Incidence – a chance occurrence:
• More frequent among non-whites
• More frequent among young primis and old multis
2. Dizygotic/Fraternal – two separate ova are fertilized by 2 different sperms. They are actually siblings growing at the same time in utero
a. Characteristics:
• May or may not be of the same sex
• With 2 amnions, 2 chorions, 2 placentas, and 2 umbilical cords
b. Incidence – familial maternal patterns of inheritance

B. Suspect multiple pregnancy if:
1. Faster rate of increase uterine size
2. On quickening, there are several flurries of action in different abdominal positions
3. On auscultation, 2 sets of fetal heart tones are heard
4. There is marked weight gain, not due to toxemia or obesity

C. Compications:
1. Toxemia
2. Polyhydramnios
3. Anemia
4. Abruptic placenta
5. Prematurity
6. Postpartum hemorrhage

VII. INSTRUMENTAL DELIVERIES
A. Forceps Delivery – use of metal instruments (e.g., Simpson, Elliot, Piper for breech presentation) in order to extract the fetus from the birth canal. Forceps are applied when the fetal head is at the perineum (+3 or +4station) and the sagittal suture line is in an anteroposterior position in relation to the outlet.
1. Purposes:
a. Shorten second stage of labor – primary purpose because of:
• Fetal distress
• Maternal exhaustion
• Maternal disease – cardiac, pulmonary complications, hemorrhage
• Ineffective pushing due to anesthesia
b. Prevent excessive pounding of fetal head against the perineum (e.g., low forceps for preemies)
c. Poor uterine contractions or rigid perineum
2. Prerequisites: prolonged and severe stretching
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d. Membranes have ruptured
e. Vertical presentation has been established
f. Rectum and bladder are empty
g. Anesthesia is given for sufficient perineal relaxation and to prevent pain
3. Types:
a. Low
b. Mid
4. Complications:
a. Forceps marks –are normal and noticeable only for 24-48 hours
b. Bladder or rectal injury, facial paralysis, ptosis, seizures, epilepsy, cerebral palsy are actually rare
B. Cesarean Section (CS)
1. Indications:
a. Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) – most common reason
b. Severe toxemia, placental accidents, fetal distress
c. Previous classic CS – selective CS – done prior to onset of labor pains
2. Types:
a. Low segment – the method of choice. Incision is made in the lower uterine segment which is the thinnest and most passive part during active labor.
• Advantages:
• Minimal blood loss
• Incision is easier to repair
• Lower incidence of postpartum infection
• No possibility of uterine rupture
b. Classic – vertical incision. Recommended in:
• Bladder or lower uterine segment adhesions resulting from previous operations
• Anterior placenta previa
• Transverse lie
3. Preoperative care – patient for CS is both a surgical and an obstetrical patient:
a. Check vital signs, uterine contractions and fetal heart rate
b. Physical examination; routine laboratory tests, blood typing and cross-matching
c. Abdominal is shaved from the level of the xiphoid process/below the nipple line, extending out to the flanks on both sides up to the upper thirds of the thighs.
d. Retention catheter is inserted to constant drainage to keep the bladder away from the operative site.
e. Preoperative medication is usually only Atropine sulfate. No narcotics are given in order to prevent respiratory depression in the newborn.
4. Postoperative care:
a. Deep breathing, coughing exercises; turning from side to side
b. Ambulate after 12 hours
c. Monitor vital signs
d. Watch for signs of hemorrhage – inspect lochia; feel fundus (when boggy, massage with proper abdominal splinting and give analgesics as ordered).
e. Breastfeeding, if desired, should be started 24 hours after delivery (anestheti9c can be transmitted through breastmilk)
5. Most common complication: pelvic thrombosis

VIII. INDUCED LABOR – to bring out labor either by amniotomy or drugs (oxytocin or prostaglandins) before the time when it would have occurred spontaneously or because it does not occur spontaneously.
A. Indications:
1. Maternal
a. Toxemia
b. Placental accidents
c. Premature rupture of the BOW
2. Fetal
a. Diabetes – terminated about 37 weeks GA if indicated
b. Blood incompatibility with rising titer
c. Excessive size
d. Postmaturity
B. Prerequisites:
1. No CPD
2. Fetus is viable – survival is decreased if below 32 weeks CA
3. Single fetus is longitudinal lie and is engaged
4. Ripe cervix – fully or partially effaced; dilated at least 1 – 2 cm
C. Procedure
1. Oxytocin administration:
a. 10 IU of Pitocin in 1000 ml of D5W at a slow rate of 8 gtts/minute given initially. If no fetal distress is observed in 30 minutes, infusion rate is increased 16-20 drops per minute.
b. Amniotomy will be done when cervical dilatation reaches 4 cm. Check FHR and quality of fluid after amniotomy.
c. Nursing care
• Primary concern: monitor intensity of uterine contractions. Remember: if uterine contractions are unduly sustained uterine rupture can occur.
• Monitor flow rate regularly
• Turn off IV drip if with abnormalities in FHR or uterine contractions
• Watch out for:
• Hypertension – oxytocin is a vasoconstrictor
• Antidiuresis leading to water intoxication
• Headache and vomiting
• Convulsions, coma, even death
2. Prostaglandin administration:
a. Route: Either oral or IV, never IM, because it causes tissue irritation
b. Effect: compared to oxytocin, the onset of contraction is slower.

IX. INFECTIONS
A. Syphilis
1. Cause: Treponema pallidum – a spirochete which enters the body during coitus or through cuts and other breaks in the skin or mucous membrane.
2. Treatment: 2.4 – 4.8 million units of Penicillin (if allergic, 30 – 40 gms. of erythrocin) will usually prevent congenital syphilis in the newborn because Penicillin readily crosses the placenta. If untreated, syphilis can cause midtrimester abortion, CNS lesions in the newborn or even death.
3. The newborn with congenital syphilis
a. Signs and symptoms:
• Jaundice at 2 weeks of life – first signs of the disease
• Anemia and hepatosplonomegaly
• “snuffles” (persistent rhinorrhea); coppery rashes on plams and soles; mucous patches; condylomas; pseudoparalysis due to bone inflammation
• If untreated, can progress on to deformed bones, teeth, nose, joints and CNS syphilis
b. Management: Penicillin IM for 10 days or one long-acting Penicillin (Penadur LA)

B. Rubella/German Measles
1. Incidence:
a. Mother – the earlier the mother contacted the disease, the greater the likelihood that the baby will be affected. The rubella virus slows down division of infected cells during organogenesis.
b. Newborn – can carry and transmit the virus for as long as 12-24 months after birth
2. Signs and symptoms of Congenital Rubella Syndrome:
a. Low birth weight; jaundice; petechiae; anemia; thrombocytopenia; hepatosplenomegaly
b. Classes sequelae;
• Eyes: choricretinitis, cataract, glaucoma
• Heart: Patent Ductus arteriosus, stenosis, coarctations
• Xxxx nerve deafness
• Dental and facial clefts

X. BLOOD INCOMPATIBILITY – excessive destruction of fetal red blood cells which occurs when the:
A. Mother is Rh negative and the fetus is Rh positive (because the father is either a homozygous or a heterozygous Rh positive)
B. Mother is Type O and the fetus is either Type A or Type B (because the father is either Type A or B)

XI. MISCELLANEOUS RISK FACTORS
A. Age – maternal and infant mortality rates tend to be high in cases in which the mother is younger than 15 or older than 40.
1. Adolescent pregnancy – is a high-risk pregnancy from both a physical and a psychosocial standpoint. Physical, because of rapid growth of both the pregnant adolescent and her fetus, causing possible depletion of nutritional reserves. Psychosocial, because adolescence is a crisis period by itself, compounded by the situational crisis of pregnancy, plus the fact that most pregnant adolescents are unwed adolescents.
a. Most common problems of pregnant adolescents:
• Toxemia
• Iron-deficiency anemia
2. Advanced age – is a precipitating factor in:
a. Placental accidents
b. Toxemia
c. Uterine atony or inertia
d. Varicosities; hemorrhoids
e. Low birth weight babies
f. Chromosomal abnormalities, e.g., Down’s syndrome/Trisomy 21/Mongolism, commonly associated with menopause:
• Mechanism – a transitional phase, called the elimacterie, heralds the onset of menopause. During this 1-2 year period, the monthly menstrual flow occurs less frequently, is irregular and diminished in amount. Ovulatory and an-ovulatory periods, however, occur (that is why contraceptive methods are advised until the menses have been absent for at least six continuous months). After there have been periods for one year, menopause is said to have occurred.
• Classic signs:
• Vasomotor changes due to hormonal imbalances:
• Hot flushes (head, neck, upper thorax)
• Excessive sweating especially at night
• Emotional changes – insomnia, headache, palpitations, nervousness, apprehension, depression
• Tendency to gain weight more rapidly
• Tendency to lose height because of osteoporosis (“dowager hump”)
• Arthralgias and muscle pains
• Loss of skin elasticity and subcutaneous fat in labial folds
• Artificial menopause/surgically-induced menopause – results from:
• Ocphorectomy or irradiation of ovaries
• Panhysterectomy (more hysterectomy will not lead to menopause since ovaries are still intact; only menstruation will be absent)
B. Parity – first pregnancy is the period of highest risk. Risk increases steadily from gravida 5 and above, especially when the mother is over 40 years of age.
C. Birth interval – a subsequent pregnancy within 3 months of a previous delivery is high risk, as much as a birth interval of more than 5 years.
D. Weight
1. A pre-pregnant weight of less than 70 lbs or more than 180 lbs is a risk factor
2. A weight gain during pregnancy of less than 10 lbs can lead to low birth weight babies, prematurity, abortion, stillbirth and toxemia. A weight gain of more than 30 lbs during pregnancy maybe a sign of toxemia, diabetes, poly-hydramnios, H-mole or multiple pregnancy.
E. Height – a primi of short stature (less than 4 feet, 10 inches) could mean a contracted pelvis or cephalopelvic disproportion.
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PUERPERIUM

PUERPERIUM

I. Definitions

A. Puerperium/Postpartum – refers to the six-week period after delivery of the baby
B. Involution – the return of the reproductive organs to their prepregnant state

II. Principles of Postpartum Care

A. Promote healing and return to normal (involution) of the different parts of the body.
1. Vascular Changes
a. The 30 – 50% increase in total cardiac volume during pregnancy will be reabsorbed into the general circulation within 5-10 minutes after placental delivery. Implication: the first 5-10 minutes after placental delivery is crucial to gravido-cardiacs because the weak heart may not be able to handle such workload.
b. White blood cell (WBC) count increases to 20,000-30,000/rm3. Implication: WBC count, therefore, cannot be sued as an indicator of postpartum infection.
c. There is extensive activation of the clotting factors, which encourages thrombo-embolization. This is the reason why:
• Ambulation is done early – after 4-8 hours in normal vaginal delivery. When ambulating the newly-delivered patient for the first time, the nurse should hold on to the patient’s arm.
• Exercises are recommended:
• Kegel and abdominal breathing on postpartum day 1 (PPD 1)
• Chin-to-chest – on second day to tight on and firm up abdominal muscles
• Knee-to-abdomen – when perineum has healed, to strengthen abdominal and gluteal muscles.
• Massage is contraindicated
d. All blood values are back to prenatal levels by the third or fourth week postpartum
2. Genital changes
a. Uterine involution is assessed by measuring the fundus by fingerbreadths (= 1 cm). On PPD 1 – fundus is one fingerbreadth below the umbilicus; on PPD 2, 2 fingerbreadths below umbilicus and so forth until on the 10th day postpartum, it can no longer be palpated because it is already behind the symphysis pubis.
• Subinvoluted uterus – a big uterus and vaginal bleeding with clots. Since blood clots are good media for bacteria, it is, therefore, a sign of puerperal sepsis.
b. To encourage return of the uterus to its usual anteflexed position, prone and knee-chest positions are advised.
c. Afterpains/after birth pains – strong uterine contractions felt more particularly by multis, those who delivered large babies or twins and those who breastfeed.
• Management:
• NEVER apply heat on abdomen
• Give analgesics, as ordered
• Explain that it is normal and rarely lasts for more than 3 days
d. Lochia – uterine discharge consisting of blood, decidua, WBC mucus and some bacteria
• Pattern:
• Rubra – first 3 days postpartum; red and moderate in amount
• Serosa – next 4-9 days; pink or brownish and decreased in amount
• Alba – from 10th day up to 3-6 weeks; colorless and minimal in amount
• Characteristics:
• Pattern should not reverse
• It should approximate menstrual flow (However, it increases with activity and decreases with breastfeeding)
• It should not have any offensive odor. It has the same fleshy odor as menstrual blood. Otherwise, it means either poor hygiene or infection
• It should not contain large clots
• It should never be absent, regardless of method of delivery. Lochia has the same pattern and amount, whether CS or normal vaginal delivery.
e. Pain in perineal region may be relieved by:
• Sim’s position – minimizes strain on the suture line
• Perineal heat lamp or warm Sitz baths twice a day – vasodilatation increases blood supply and, therefore, promotes healing
• Application of topical analgesics or administration of mild oral analgesics, as ordered
f. Sexual activity – maybe resumed by the third or fourth week postpartum if bleeding has stopped and episiorrhaphy has haled. Decreased physiologic reactions to sexual stimulation are expected for the first 3 months and emotional factors
g. Menstruation – if not breastfeeding, return of menstrual flow is expected within 8 weeks after delivery. If breastfeeding, menstrual return is expected in 3-4 months; in some women, no menstruation occurs during the entire lactation period (IMPORTANT: Amenorrhea during lactation is no guarantee that the woman will not become pregnant. She may be ovulating and the absence of menstruation may be her body’s way of conserving fluids for lactation. Implication: She should be protected against a subsequent pregnancy by observing a method of contraception but not the pill.)
h. Postpartum check-up – should be done after the 6th week postpartum to assess involution.
3. Urinary changes
a. There is marked diuresis within 12 hours postpartum to eliminate excess tissue fluid accumulation during pregnancy.
b. Some newly delivered mothers may complain of frequent urination in small amounts; explain that it is due to urinary retention with overflow. Others, on the other hand, may have difficulty voiding because of decreased abdominal pressure or trauma to the trigone of the bladder. Voiding maybe initiated by pouring warm and cold water alternately over the vulva, encouraging patient to go to the comfort room and let her listen to the sound of running water. If these measures fail, catheterization, done gently and aseptically, is the last resort on doctor’s order. (If there is resistance to the catheter when it reaches the internal sphincter, ask patient to breathe through the mouth while rotating the catheter before moving it inward again.)
4. Gastrointestinal changes – delayed bowel evacuation postpartally may be due to:
a. Decrease muscle tone
b. Lack of food + enema during labor
c. Dehydration
d. Fear of pain from perineal tenderness due to episiotomy, lacerations or hemorrhoids
5. Vital Signs
a. Temperature may increase because of the dehydrating effects of labor. Implication: Any increase in body temperature during the first 24 hours postpartum is not necessarily a sign of postpartum infection.
b. Bradycardia ( = heart rate of 50-70 per minute) is common for 6-8 days postpartum.
c. There is no change in respiratory rate.
6. Weight – there is an immediate weight loss of 10-12 lbs representing the weights of the fetus, placenta, amniotic fluid and blood. Further weight loss will occur during the next days due to diaphoresis.
7. Psychologic phases

B. Provide emotional support – the psychological phases during the postpartum period are:
1.Taking-in phase – first 1-2 days postpartum when mother is passive and relies on others to care for her and her newborn. She keeps on verbalizing her feelings regarding the recent delivery for her to be able to integrate the experience into herself.
2. Taking-hold phase – begins to initiate action and make decisions. Postpartum blues ( - an overwhelming feeling of sadness that cannot be accounted for) may be observed. Could be due to hormonal changes, fatigue or feelings of inadequacy in taking care of a new baby. Management: Explain that it is normal and that crying is therapeutic, in fact.

C. Prevent postpartum complications
1. Hemorrhage – blood loss of more than 500 cc. (normal blood loss during labor and delivery is 250-350 cc); leading cause of maternal mortality associated with childbearing

Table 7. Classification of Postpartum Hemorrhage

I. Early postpartum hemorrhage – occurs during he first 24 hours postpartum
A. Uterine Atony – uterus is not well contracted, relaxed or boggy; most frequent cause
1. Predisposing factors:
a. Overdistention of the uterus – e.g., multiple pregnancy, multiparity, excessively large baby, polyhydramnios
b. Cesarean section
c. Placental accidents (previa or abruptio)
d. Prolonged and difficult labor
2. Management:
a. Massage – first nursing action
b. Ice compress
c. Oxytocin administration
d. Emptying the bladder
e. Bimanual compression to explore retained placental fragments
f. Hysterectomy – last resort
B. Lacerations
C. Hypofibrinoginemia – a clotting defect

II. Late postpartum hemorrhage
A. Retained placental fragments – Management: dilatation and curettage (D&C)
B. Hematoma – due injury to blood vessels during delivery
1. Incidence: Commonly seen in precipitate delivery and those with perineal varicosities
2. Treatment:
a. Ice compress during the first 24 hours
b. Oral analgesic, as ordered
c. Site is incised and bleeding vessel is ligated

2. Infection
a. Sources:
• Endogenous (primary) sources – bacteria in the normal flora become virulent when tissues are traumatized and general resistance is lowered
• Exogenous sources – pathogens introduced from external sources. Organism most frequently responsible for postpartum infections: Anaerobic streptococci.
• Common exogenous sources:
• Hospital personnel
• Excessive obstetric manipulations
• Breaks in aseptic techniques – faulty hand washing, unsterile equipments and supplies
• Coitus in late pregnancy
• Premature rupture of the membranes
b. General symptoms: malaise, anorexia, fever, chills and headache
c. General management: complete bed rest (CBR), proper nutrition, increased fluid intake, analgesics, antipyretics and antibiotics, as ordered
d. Types of infection:
A. Infection of the perineum
• Specific symptoms:
• Pain, heat and feeling of pressure in the perineum
• Inflammation of the suture line, with 1 or 2 stitches sloughed off
• With or without elevated temperature
• Specific management:
• Doctor removes sutures to drain area and re-sutures
• Hot Sitz bath or warm compress
B. Endometritis – inflammation/infection of the lining of the uterus
• Specific symptoms:
• Oxytocin
• Fowler’s position to drain out lochia and prevent pooling of infected discharge
C. Thrombophlebitis – infection of the lining of a blood vessel with formation of clots; usually an extension of endometritis
• Specific symptoms:
• Pain, stiffness and redness in the affected part of the leg
• Leg beings to swell below the lesion because venous circulation has been blocked
• Skin is stretched to a point to shiny whiteness, called milk leg – phlegmasia alba dolens
• Positive Homan’s Sign – pain in the calf when the foot is dorsiflexed
• Specific management:
• Bed rest with affected leg elevated
• Anticoagulants, e.g., Dicumarol or Heparin, to prevent further clot formation or extension of a thrombus
Side effects: hematuria & increased lochia
• Considerations:
• Discontinue breastfeeding
• Monitor prothrombin time
• Always have Protamin sulfate or Vitamin at bedside to counteract toxicity
• Analgesics are given but NEVER Aspirin because it inhibits prothrombin formation; since patient is already receiving an anticoagulant, bleeding may occur

D. Establish successful lactation

Table 8. Physiology of Breastmilk Production

DECREASED ESTROGEN AND PROGESTERONE levels after the delivery of the placenta ---------------------stimulates anterior pituitary gland to produce prolactin ------------------- acts on acinar cells to produce foremilk -----------------stored in collecting tubules.

WHEN INFANT SUCKS ----------------- posterior pituitary gland is stimulated to produce oxytocin --------------- causes contraction of smooth muscles of collecting tubules ---------- milk ejected forward ---------------LET-DOWN or MILK EJECTION REFLEX --------------hindmilk is produced

1. Implications of physiology of breastmilk production:
a. Regardless of the mother’s physical condition, method of delivery or breast size, condition, milk will be produced.
b. Lactation does not occur during pregnancy because estrogen and progesterone are present and therefore, inhibit prolactin production.
c. Lactation-suppressing agents are to be given immediately after placental delivery to be effective
d. Oral contraceptives are contraindicated in lactating mothers because they decrease milk supply
e. After pains are felt more by breastfeeding women because of oxytocin production; they also have less lochia and experience more rapid involution
f. If emergency delivery when the uterus does not contract, put the infant to the breast.
• During initial contact in emergency delivery, determine whether the woman in labor is a primi or a multi, the EDC and also assess the stage of labor. And if not sterile equipment is available to cut the cord, wrap the baby and the placenta together; never cut the cord unless sterile equipments are available.
2. Advantages of breastfeeding
a. For mother:
• Economical in terms of time, money and effort
• More rapid involution
• Less incidence of cancer of the breast, according to some studies
b. For the baby:
• Closer mother-infant relationship
• Contains antibodies that protect against common illnesses
• Less incidence of gastrointestinal diseases
• Always available at the right temperature
3. Health Teachings
a. Hygiene
• Wash breasts daily at bath or shower time
• Soap or alcohol should never be used on the breasts as they tend to dry and crack the nipples and cause sore nipples
• Wash hands before and after every feeding
• Insert clean OS squares or piece of cloth in the brassiere to absorb moisture when there is considerable breast discharge
b. Method – as suggested by the La Leche League
• Side-lying position with a pillow under the mother’s head while holding the bulk of breast tissues way from the infant’s nose
• Stimulate the baby to open his mouth to grasp the nipples by means of the rooting reflex
• Infant should grasp not only the nipple but also the areola for effective sucking motion. Effectiveness is ensured when:
• The baby’s mouth parts “make well up” into the areola
• The mother feels after pain as the baby sucks
• The other nipple flows with milk while baby is feeding on the other breast
• To prevent nipples from becoming sore and cracked, infant should be introduced to the beast gradually. The baby should be fed for only 5 minutes at each beast at each feeding on the first day, increasing the time at each beast by 1 minute per day until the infant is nursing for 10 minutes at each breast each feeding, making a total feeding time of twenty minutes per feeding.
• For continuous milk production, at each feeding, the infant should be placed first on the breast he fed last in the previous feeding. This ensures that each breast will be completely emptied at every other feeding. If breasts are completely emptied, they completely refill again; if only half-emptied, will half-refill and after some time, will become insufficient.
• To break away from the closed suction at the breast after feeding, insert a clean finger in the corner of the infant’s mouth to release the suction, then pull the chin down. This also helps prevent sore nipples.
• Feed as often as the baby is hungry, especially during the first few days, because he is receiving colostrums, which is not very filling; however, it contains the only group of substances that can never be replicated by any artificial formula, the gamma globulins (antibodies).
• Advise the mother to learn how to relax during feedings because tension prevents good let-down.
c. Engorgement – feeling of tension in the breasts during the third postpartum day, sometimes accompanied by an increase in temperature (- milk fever). The breasts become full, feel tense and hot, with throbbing pain. It lasts for about 24 hours and is due to increased lymphatic and venous circulation.
• Management:
• Advise use of firm-fitting brassiere for good support. It will not only decrease the discomfort from breast engorgement but also prevents contamination of the nipples and the areolae.
• Cold compress is applied if mother does not intend to breastfeed; warm compress is applied if she will breastfeed
• Breast pump is not used more breast massage doe if mother is not going to breastfeed, since either will only stimulate milk production.
• Sore nipples – are not contraindications to breastfeeding
• Management:
• Expose nipples to air by leaving bra unsnapped for 10 to 15 minutes after a feeding
• When normal air drying is not effective, exposure to a 20-watt bulb place 12-18 inches away will cause vasodilatation, increase circulation and promote healing
• Do not use plastic liners that are found in some nursing bras because they prevent air from circulating around the breasts
• Use nipple shield
• Mastitis – inflammation of the breasts
• Symptoms:
• Localized pain, swelling and redness in breast tissues
• Lumps in the breast
• Milk becomes scanty
• Management:
• Antibiotics, as ordered
• Ice compress
• Proper breast support
• Discontinue breastfeeding in affected breast
d. Nutrition – lactating mothers should take 3000 calories daily and should have larger amounts of proteins (=96 gms per day), calcium, iron, Vitamins A, B, and C. Non-breastfeeding women can have the same requirements as in pregnancy
e. Contraindications
• Drugs – oral contraceptives, atropine, anticoagulants, antimetabolites, cathartics, tetracyclines. Insulin (diabetes, therefore, is not contraindicated), epinephrine, most antibiotics, antidiarrheal and antihistamines are generally not contraindicated.
• Certain disease conditions, specifically tuberculosis because of the close contact between mother and baby during feeding. No TB germs, however, are every transmitted thru breast milk.


E. Motivate use of family planning methods – the success of the family planning program depends to a great extent on the motivation of both husband and wife.
1. Physiological methods – the oral contraceptives.
a. Action: Suppresses the pituitary gland, thus inhibiting ovulation.
b. Types:
• Combined – estrogen and progesterone in the same dosage each day for 20 days, starting on the fifth day of the menstrual cycle, after which it is discontinued and then resumed on the fifth day of the next menstrual period.
• Sequential – estrogen alone for 15 days, then estrogen and progesterone for 5 days.
• Mini-pill – taken continuously
c. Side effects – same complaints of pregnant women because of estrogen and progesterone:
• Nausea and vomiting
• Headache and weight gain – both due to fluid retention because of progesterone
• Breast tenderness
• Dizziness
• Breakthrough bleeding/spotting between periods
• Chloasma
d. Contraindications:
• Breastfeeding
• Certain diseases
• Thromboembolism – because there is increased tendency towards clotting in the presence of estrogen
• Diabetes mellitus and liver disease – because estrogen tends to interfere with carbohydrate metabolism
• Migraine; epilepsy; varicosities
• Cancer; renal disease; recent hepatitis
• Women who smoke more than 2 packs of cigarettes per day
• Strong family history of heart attack
2. Mechanical methods
a. Intrauterine device (IUD)
• Specific action: Prevents implantation by setting up a non-specific cell inflammatory reaction to the device
• Inserted during a menstruation to ensure that the woman is not pregnant; septic abortion can result if she is pregnant.
• Side effects:
• Increased menstrual flow
• Spotting or uterine cramps during the first 2 weeks after insertion
• Increased risk of infection
• When pregnancy occurs with the device in place, it need not be removed since it stays outside the membranes, and, therefore, will not in any way harm the fetus
b. Diaphragm
• Specific action: A circular rubber disc that fits over the cervix and forma a barrier against the entrance of sperms
• Is initially inserted by a doctor who determines the depth of the vagina
• May be coated with a spermicidal jelly or cream for double protection
• Maybe washed with soap and water after use
• Sperms remain viable in the vagina for 6 hours, so the device should be kept in place during such time, but should not stay for more than 24 hours because stasis of semen can lead to infection.
c. Condom
• Specific action: Sperms are deposited in the tip of the rubber sheath placed over an erect penis prior to coitus. Has the added potential of lessening the change of contacting sexually-transmitted disease (STDs)
• Most common complaint of users: it interrupts the sexual act to apply
3. Chemical methods – are spermicidals (kill sperms). E.g., jellies, creams, foaming tablets, suppositories
4. Biological method – Rhythm/Calental/Ogino-Knause Formula
a. Specific action: the couple abstains on days that the woman is fertile
b. Procedure
• The woman charts her menstrual cycles for 12 continuous months in order to determine the shortest and the longest cycles
• The first fertile day is determined by subtracting “18” from the shortest menstrual cycle; the last fertile day is determined by subtracting “11” from the longest menstrual cycle.
• E.g., if a woman’s shortest menstrual cycle is 26 days and her longest is 32 days,

26 32
- 18 - 11
8 21

her fertile period would be from the 8th to the 21st day of her cycle, i.e., she should not have sexual intercourse during these days
5. Natural Family Planning (NFF) – periods abstinence:
a. Cervical mucus/Billing method
• Basis: the flow of mucus from the cervix of the uterus
• Method: a woman can discern her fertile and infertile days based on her sensory and visual observations of the cervical mucus (when it becomes thin and watery – spinnbarkeit), intercourse is avoided 4 days prior to and 3 days after the spinnbarkeit
b. Basal Body Temperature (BBT)
• Method: involves observing the temperature of the woman at rest, free from any factor that may cause it to fluctuate (immediately upon waking up, before doing anything else). As soon as the temperature drops slightly and then increases (which means ovulation has taken place), she counts 3-4 days, after which sexual intercourse may be resumed.
c. Sympto-Thermal method – fertile and infertile days are determined after having established an accurate record of the six immediately preceding menstrual cycles and then watching out for BBT fluctuations.
6. Surgical methods
a. Tubal ligation – the Fallopian tubes are ligated in order to prevent passage of sperms. Menstruation and ovulation continue
b. Vasectomy – small incision made into each side of the scrotum and the vas deferens is and cut and tied, blocking passage of sperms. Sperm production continues, only passage into the exterior is prevented. (Sperms in the vas deferens at the time of surgery may remain viable for as long as 6 months. Implication: couple should still observe a form of contraception during this time to ensure protection against a subsequent pregnancy.)
7. Social methods
a. Abstinence
b. Withdrawal or coitus interruptus
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Maternal/OB drill 8

SITUATION : Aling Martha, a 32 year old fish vendor from baranggay matahimik came to see you at the prenatal clinic. She brought with her all her three children. Maye, 1 year 6 months; Joy, 3 and Dan, 7 years old. She mentioned that she stopped taking oral contraceptives several months ago and now suspects she is pregnant. She cannot remember her LMP.

1. Which of the following would be useful in calculating Aling Martha's EDC?

A. Appearance of linea negra
B. First FHT by fetoscope
C. Increase pulse rate
D. Presence of edema

2. Which hormone is necessary for a positive pregnancy test?

A. Progesterone
B. HCG
C. Estrogen
D. Placental Lactogen

3. With this pregnancy, Aling Martha is a

A. P3 G3
B. Primigravida
C. P3 G4
D. P0 G3

4. In explaining the development of her baby, you identified in chronological order of growth of the fetus as it occurs in pregnancy as

A. Ovum, embryo, zygote, fetus, infant
B. Zygote, ovum, embryo, fetus, infant
C. Ovum, zygote, embryo, fetus, infant
D. Zygote, ovum, fetus, embryo, infant

5. Aling Martha states she is happy to be pregnant. Which behavior is elicited by her during your assessment that would lead you to think she is stressed?

A. She told you about her drunk husband
B. She states she has very meager income from selling
C. She laughs at every advise you give even when its not funny
D. She has difficulty following instructions

6. When teaching Aling Martha about her pregnancy, you should include personal common discomforts. Which of the following is an indication for prompt professional supervision?

A. Constipation and hemorrhoids
B. Backache
C. Facial edema
D. frequent urination

7. Which of the following statements would be appropriate for you to include in Aling Martha's prenatal teaching plan?

A. Exercise is very tiresome, it should be avoided
B. Limit your food intake



C. Smoking has no harmful effect on the growth and development of fetus
D. Avoid unnecessary fatigue, rest periods should be included in you schedule

8. The best advise you can give to Aling Martha regarding prevention of varicosities is

A. Raise the legs while in upright position and put it against the wall several times a day
B. Lay flat for most hours of the day
C. Use garters with nylon stocking
D. Wear support hose

9. In a 32 day menstrual cycle, ovulation usually occurs on the

A. 14th day after menstruation
B. 18th day after menstruation
C. 20th day after menstruation
D. 24th day after menstruation

10. Placenta is the organ that provides exchange of nutrients and waste products between mother and fetus. This develops by

A. First month
B. Third month
C. Fifth month
D. Seventh month

11. In evaluating the weight gain of Aling Martha, you know the minimum weight gain during pregnancy is

A. 2 lbs/wk
B. 5 lbs/wk
C. 7 lbs/wk
D. 10 lbs/wk

12. The more accurate method of measuring fundal height is

A. Millimeter
B. Centimeter
C. Inches
D. Fingerbreadths

13. To determine fetal position using Leopold's maneuvers, the first maneuver is to

A. Determine degree of cephalic flexion and engagement
B. Determine part of fetus presenting into pelvis
C. Locate the back,arms and legs
D. Determine what part of fetus is in the fundus

14. Aling Martha has encouraged her husband to attend prenatal classes with her. During the prenatal class, the couple expressed fear of pain during labor and delivery. The use of touch and soothing voice often promotes comfort to the laboring patient. This physical intervention is effective because

A. Pain perception is interrupted
B. Gate control fibers are open
C. It distracts the client away from the pain
D. Empathy is communicated by a caring person




15. Which of the following could be considered as a positive sign of pregnancy ?

A. Amenorrhea, nausea, vomiting
B. Frequency of urination
C. Braxton hicks contraction
D. Fetal outline by sonography

SITUATION : Maternal and child health is the program of the department of health created to lessen the death of infants and mother in the Philippines.

16. What is the goal of this program?

A. Promote mother and infant health especially during the gravida stage
B. Training of local hilots
C. Direct supervision of midwives during home delivery
D. Health teaching to mother regarding proper newborn care

17. One philosophy of the maternal and child health nursing is

A. All pregnancy experiences are the same for all woman
B. Culture and religious practices have little effect on pregnancy of a woman
C. Pregnancy is a part of the life cycle but provides no meaning
D. The father is as important as the mother

18. In maternal care, the PHN responsibility is

A. To secure all information that would be needing in birth certificate
B. To protect the baby against tetanus neonatorum by immunizing the mother with DPT
C. To reach all pregnant woman
D. To assess nutritional status of existing children

19. This is use when rendering prenatal care in the rural health unit. It serves as a guide in Identification of risk factors

A. Underfive clinic chart
B. Home based mother's record
C. Client list of mother under prenatal care
D. Target list of woman under TT vaccination

20. The schedule of prenatal visit in the RHU unit is

A. Once from 1st up to 8th month, weekly on the 9th month
B. Twice in 1st and second trimester, weekly on third trimester
C. Once in each trimester, more frequent for those at risk
D. Frequent as possible to determine the presence of FHT each week

SITUATION : Knowledge of the menstrual cycle is important in maternal health nursing. The following questions pertains to the process of menstruation

21. Menarche occurs during the pubertal period, Which of the following occurs first in the development of female sex characteristics?

A. Menarche
B. Accelerated Linear Growth




C. Breast development
D. Growth of pubic hair

22. Which gland is responsible for initiating the menstrual cycle?

A. Ovaries
B. APG
C. PPG
D. Hypothalamus

23. The hormone that stimulates the ovaries to produce estrogen is

A. GnRH
B. LH
C. LHRF
D. FSH

24. Which hormone stimulates oocyte maturation?

A. GnRH
B. LH
C. LHRF
D. FSH

25. When is the serum estrogen level highest in the menstrual cycle?

A. 3rd day
B. 13th day
C. 14th day
D. End of menstrual cycle

26. To correctly determine the day of ovulation, the nurse must

A. Deduct 14 days at the mid of the cycle
B. Subtract two weeks at cycle's end
C. Add 7 days from mid of the cycle
D. Add 14 days from the end of the cycle

27. The serum progesterone is lowest during what day of the menstrual cycle?

A. 3rd day
B. 13th day
C. 14th day
D. End of menstrual cycle

28. How much blood is loss on the average during menstrual period?

A. Half cup
B. 4 tablespoon
C. 3 ounces
D. 1/3 cup

29. Menstruation occurs because of which following mechanism?

A. Increase level of estrogen and progesterone level
B. Degeneration of the corpus luteum



C. Increase vascularity of the endothelium
D. Surge of hormone progesterone

30. If the menstrual cycle of a woman is 35 day cycle, she will approximately

A. Ovulate on the 21st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th day to the 26th day of her cycle
B. Ovulate on the 21st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th day to the 21th day of her cycle
C. Ovulate on the 22st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th day to the 26th day of her cycle
D. Ovulate on the 22st day with fertile days beginning on the 14th day to the 30th day of her cycle

SITUATION : Wide knowledge about different diagnostic tests during pregnancy is an essential arsenal for a nurse to be successful.

31. The Biparietal diameter of a fetus is considered matured if it is atleast

A. 9.8 cm
B. 8.5 cm
C. 7.5 cm
D. 6 cm

32. Quickening is experienced first by multigravida clients. At what week of gestation do they start to experience quickening?

A. 16th
B. 20th
C. 24th
D. 28th

33. Before the start of a non stress test, The FHR is 120 BPM. The mother ate the snack and the practitioner noticed an increase from 120 BPM to 135 BPM for 15 seconds. How would you read the result?

A. Abnormal
B. Non reactive
C. Reactive
D. Inconclusive, needs repeat

34. When should the nurse expect to hear the FHR using a fetoscope?

A. 2nd week
B. 8th week
C. 2nd month
D. 4th month

35. When should the nurse expect to hear FHR using doppler Ultrasound?

A. 8th week
B. 8th month
C. 2nd week
D. 4th month

36. The mother asks, What does it means if her maternal serum alph feto protein is 35 ng/ml? The nurse should answer

A. It is normal
B. It is not normal



C. 35 ng/ml indicates chromosomal abberation
D. 35 ng/ml indicates neural tube defect

37. Which of the following mothers needs RHOGAM?

A. RH + mother who delivered an RH - fetus
B. RH - mother who delivered an RH + fetus
C. RH + mother who delivered an RH + fetus
D. RH - mother who delivered an RH - fetus

38. Which family planning method is recommended by the department of health more than any other means of contraception?

A. Fertility Awareness Method
B. Condom
C. Tubal Ligation
D. Abstinence

39. How much booster dose does tetanus toxoid vaccination for pregnant women has?

A. 2
B. 5
C. 3
D. 4

40. Baranggay pinoybsn.tk has 70,000 population. How much nurse is needed to service this population?

A. 5
B. 7
C. 50
D. 70

SITUATION : Reproductive health is the exercise of reproductive right with responsibility. A married couple has the responsibility to reproduce and procreate.

41. Which of the following is ONE of the goals of the reproductive health concept?

A. To achieve healthy sexual development and maturation
B. To prevent specific RH problem through counseling
C. Provide care, treatment and rehabilitation
D. To practice RH as a way of life of every man and woman

42. Which of the following is NOT an element of the reproductive health?

A. Maternal and child health and nutrition
B. Family planning
C. Prevention and management of abortion complication
D. Healthy sexual development and nutrition

43. In the international framework of RH, which one of the following is the ultimate goal?

A. Women's health in reproduction
B. Attainment of optimum health
C. Achievement of women's status
D. Quality of life




44. Which one of the following is a determinant of RH affecting woman's ability to participate in social affairs?

A. Gender issues
B. Socio-Economic condition
C. Cultural and psychosocial factors
D. Status of women

45. In the philippine RH Framework. which major factor affects RH status?

A. Women's lower level of literacy
B. Health service delivery mechanism
C. Poor living conditions lead to illness
D. Commercial sex workers are exposed to AIDS/STD.

46. Which determinant of reproductive health advocates nutrition for better health promotion and maintain a healthful life?

A. Socio-Economic conditions
B. Status of women
C. Social and gender issues
D. Biological, Cultural and Psychosocial factors

47. Which of the following is NOT a strategy of RH?

A. Increase and improve contraceptive methods
B. Achieve reproductive intentions
C. Care provision focused on people with RH problems
D. Prevent specific RH problem through information dessemination

48. Which of the following is NOT a goal of RH?

A. Achieve healthy sexual development and maturation
B. Avoid illness/diseases, injuries, disabilities related to sexuality and reproduction
C. Receive appropriate counseling and care of RH problems
D. Strengthen outreach activities and the referral system

49. What is the VISION of the RH?

A. Attain QUALITY OF LIFE
B. Practice RH as a WAY OF LIFE
C. Prevent specific RH problem
D. Health in the hands of the filipino

SITUATION : Baby G, a 6 hours old newborn is admitted to the NICU because of low APGAR Score. His mother had a prolonged second stage of labor

50. Which of the following is the most important concept associated with all high risk newborn?

A. Support the high-risk newborn's cardiopulmonary adaptation by maintaining adequate airway
B. Identify complications with early intervention in the high risk newborn to reduce morbidity and mortality
C. Assess the high risk newborn for any physical complications that will assist the parent with bonding
D. Support mother and significant others in their request toward adaptation to the high risk newborn






51. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in a newborn with birth asphyxia?

A. Hyperoxemia
B. Acidosis
C. Hypocapnia
D. Ketosis

52. When planning and implementing care for the newborn that has been successfully resuscitated, which of the following would be important to assess?

A. Muscle flaccidity
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Decreased intracranial pressure
D. Spontaneous respiration

SITUATION : Nurses should be aware of the different reproductive problems.

53. When is the best time to achieve pregnancy?

A. Midway between periods
B. Immediately after menses end
C. 14 days before the next period is expected
D. 14 days after the beginning of the next period

54. A factor in infertility maybe related to the PH of the vaginal canal. A medication that is ordered to alter the vaginal PH is:

A. Estrogen therapy
B. Sulfur insufflations
C. Lactic acid douches
D. Na HCO3 Douches

55. A diagnostic test used to evaluate fertility is the postcoital test. It is best timed

A. 1 week after ovulation
B. Immediately after menses
C. Just before the next menstrual period
D. Within 1 to 2 days of presumed ovulation

56. A tubal insufflation test is done to determine whether there is a tubal obstruction. Infertility caused by a defect in the tube is most often related to a

A. Past infection
B. Fibroid Tumor
C. Congenital Anomaly
D. Previous injury to a tube

57. Which test is commonly used to determine the number, motility and activity of sperm is the

A. Rubin test
B. Huhner test
C. Friedman test
D. Papanicolau test





58. In the female, Evaluation of the pelvic organs of reproduction is accomplished by

A. Biopsy
B. Cystoscopy
C. Culdoscopy
D. Hysterosalpingogram

59. When is the fetal weight gain greatest?

A. 1st trimester
B. 2nd trimester
C. 3rd trimester
D. from 4th week up to 16th week of pregnancy

60. In fetal blood vessel, where is the oxygen content highest?

A. Umbilical artery
B. Ductus Venosus
C. Ductus areteriosus
D. Pulmonary artery

61. The nurse is caring for a woman in labor. The woman is irritable, complains of nausea and vomits and has heavier show. The membranes rupture. The nurse understands that this indicates

A. The woman is in transition stage of labor
B. The woman is having a complication and the doctor should be notified
C. Labor is slowing down and the woman may need oxytocin
D. The woman is emotionally distraught and needs assistance in dealing with labor

SITUATION : Cynthia, a 32 year old primigravida at 39-40 weeks AOG was admitted to the labor room due to hypogastric and lumbo-sacral pains. IE revealed a fully dilated, fully effaced cervix. Station 0.

62. She is immediately transferred to the DR table. Which of the following conditions signify that delivery is near?

I - A desire to defecate
II - Begins to bear down with uterine contraction
III - Perineum bulges
IV - Uterine contraction occur 2-3 minutes intervals at 50 seconds duration

A. I,II,III
B. I,II,III,IV
C. I,III,IV
D. II,III,IV

63. Artificial rupture of the membrane is done. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is the priority?

A. High risk for infection related to membrane rupture
B. Potential for injury related to prolapse cord
C. Alteration in comfort related to increasing strength of uterine contraction
D. Anxiety related to unfamiliar procedure

64. Cynthia complains of severe abdominal pain and back pain during contraction. Which two of the following measures will be MOST effective in reducing pain?

I - Rubbing the back with a tennis ball
II- Effleurage



III-Imagery
IV-Breathing techniques

A. II,IV
B. II,III
C. I,IV
D. I,II

65. Lumbar epidural anesthesia is administered. Which of the following nursing responsibilities should be done immediately following procedure?

A. Reposition from side to side
B. Administer oxygen
C. Increase IV fluid as indicated
D. Assess for maternal hypotension

66. Which is NOT the drug of choice for epidural anesthesia?

A. Sensorcaine
B. Xylocaine
C. Ephedrine
D. Marcaine

SITUATION : Helen, a 24 year old G4P3 at full term gestation is brought to the ER after a gush of fluid passes through here vagina while doing her holiday shopping.

67. She is brought to the triage unit. The FHT is noted to be 114 bpm. Which of the following actions should the nurse do first?

A. Monitor FHT ever 15 minutes
B. Administer oxygen inhalation
C. Ask the charge nurse to notify the Obstetrician
D. Place her on the left lateral position

68. The nurse checks the perineum of Helen. Which of the following characteristic of the amniotic fluid would cause an alarm to the nurse?

A. Greenish
B. Scantly
C. Colorless
D. Blood tinged

69. Helen asks the nurse. "Why do I have to be on complete bed rest? I am not comfortable in this position." Which of the following response of the nurse is most appropriate?

A. Keeping you on bed rest will prevent possible cord prolapse
B. Completed bed rest will prevent more amniotic fluid to escape
C. You need to save your energy so you will be strong enough to push later
D. Let us ask your obstetrician when she returns to check on you

70. Helen wants to know how many fetal movements per hour is normal, the correct response is

A. Twice
B. Thrice




C. Four times
D. 10-12 times

71. Upon examination by the obstetrician, he charted that Helen is in the early stage of labor. Which of the following is true in this state?

A. Self-focused
B. Effacement is 100%
C. Last for 2 hours
D. Cervical dilation 1-3 cm

SITUATION : Maternal and child health nursing a core concept of providing health in the community. Mastery of MCH Nursing is a quality all nurse should possess.

72. When should be the 2nd visit of a pregnant mother to the RHU?

A. Before getting pregnant
B. As early in pregnancy
C. Second trimester
D. Third trimester

73. Which of the following is NOT a standard prenatal physical examination?

A. Neck examination for goiter
B. Examination of the palms of the hands for pallor
C. Edema examination of the face hands, and lower extremeties
D. Examination of the legs for varicosities

74. Which of the following is NOT a basic prenatal service delivery done in the BHS?

A. Oral/Dental check up
B. Laboratory examination
C. Treatment of diseases
D. Iron supplementation

75. How many days and how much dosage will the IRON supplementation be taken?

A. 365 days / 300 mg
B. 210 days / 200 mg
C. 100 days/ 100mg
D. 50 days / 50 mg

76. When should the iron supplementation starts and when should it ends?

A. 5th month of pregnancy to 2nd month post partum
B. 1st month of pregnancy to 5th month post partum
C. As early in pregnancy up to 9th month of pregnancy
D. From 1st trimester up to 6 weeks post partum

77. In malaria infested area, how is chloroquine given to pregnant women?

A. 300 mg / twice a month for 9 months
B. 200 mg / once a week for 5 months





C. 150 mg / twice a week for the duration of pregnancy
D. 100 mg / twice a week for the last trimester of pregnancy

78. Which of the following mothers are qualified for home delivery?

A. Pre term
B. 6th pregnancy
C. Has a history of hemorrhage last pregnancy
D. 2nd pregnancy, Has a history of 20 hours of labor last pregnancy.

79. Which of the following is not included on the 3 Cs of delivery?

A. Clean Surface
B. Clean Hands
C. Clean Equipments
D. Clean Cord

80. Which of the following is unnecessary equipment to be included in the home delivery kit?

A. Boiled razor blade
B. 70% Isopropyl Alcohol
C. Flashlight
D. Rectal and oral thermometer

SITUATION : Pillar is admitted to the hospital with the following signs : Contractions coming every 10 minutes, lasting 30 seconds and causing little discomfort. Intact membranes without any bloody shows. Stable vital signs. FHR = 130bpm. Examination reveals cervix is 3 cm dilated with vertex presenting at minus 1 station.

81. On the basis of the data provided above, You can conclude the pillar is in the

A. In false labor
B. In the active phase of labor
C. In the latent phase of labor
D. In the transitional phase of labor

82. Pitocin drip is started on Pilar. Possible side effects of pitocin administration include all of the following except

A. Diuresis
B. Hypertension
C. Water intoxication
D. Cerebral hemorrhage

83. The normal range of FHR is approximately

A. 90 to 140 bpm
B. 120 to 160 bpm
C. 100 to 140 bpm
D. 140 to 180 bpm

84. A negative 1 [-1] station means that

A. Fetus is crowning
B. Fetus is floating
C. Fetus is engaged
D. Fetus is at the ischial spine




85. Which of the following is characteristics of false labor

A. Bloody show
B. Contraction that are regular and increase in frequency and duration
C. Contraction are felt in the back and radiates towards the abdomen
D. None of the above

86. Who's Theory of labor pain that states that PAIN in labor is cause by FEAR

A. Bradley
B. Simpson
C. Lamaze
D. Dick-Read

87. Which sign would alert the nurse that Pillar is entering the second stage of labor?

A. Increase frequency and intensity of contraction
B. Perineum bulges and anal orifice dilates
C. Effacement of internal OS is 100%
D. Vulva encircles the largest diameter of presenting part

88. Nursing care during the second stage of labor should include

A. Careful evaluation of prenatal history
B. Coach breathing, Bear down with each contraction and encourage patient.
C. Shave the perineum
D. Administer enema to the patient

SITUATION : Baby boy Jose was delivered spontaneously following a term pregnancy. Apgar scores are 8 and 9 respectively. Routine procedures are carried out.

89. When is the APGAR Score taken?

A. Immediately after birth and at 30 minutes after birth
B. At 5 minutes after birth and at 30 minutes after birth
C. At 1 minute after birth and at 5 minutes after birth
D. Immediately after birth and at 5 minutes after birth

90. The best way to position a newboarn during the first week of life is to lay him

A. Prone with head slightly elevated
B. On his back, flat
C. On his side with his head flat on bed
D. On his back with head slightly elevated

91. Baby boy Jose has a large sebaceous glands on his nose, chin, and forehead. These are known as

A. Milia
B. Lanugo
C. Hemangiomas
D. Mongolian spots

92. Baby boy Jose must be carefully observed for the first 24 hours for

A. Respiratory distress
B. Duration of cry



C. Frequency of voiding
D. Range in body temperature

93. According to the WHO , when should the mother starts breastfeeding the infant?

A. Within 30 minutes after birth
B. Within 12 hours after birth
C. Within a day after birth
D. After infant's condition stabilizes

94. What is the BEST and most accurate method of measuring the medication dosage for infants and children?

A. Weight
B. Height
C. Nomogram
D. Weight and Height

95. The first postpartum visit should be done by the mother within

A. 24 hours
B. 3 days
C. a week
D. a month

96. The major cause of maternal mortality in the Philippines is

A. Infection
B. Hemorrhage
C. Hypertension
D. Other complications related to labor,delivery and puerperium

97. According to the WHO, what should be the composition of a commercialized Oral rehydration salt solution?

A. Potassium : 1.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 2.5g ; Sodium Chloride 3.5g; Glucose 20 g.
A. Potassium : 1.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 2.5g ; Sodium Chloride 3.5g; Glucose 10 g.
A. Potassium : 2.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 3.5g ; Sodium Chloride 4.5g; Glucose 20 g.
A. Potassium : 2.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 3.5g ; Sodium Chloride 4.5g; Glucose 10 g.

98. In preparing ORESOL at home, The correct composition recommnded by the DOH is

A. 1 glass of water, 1 pinch of salt and 2 tsp of sugar
B. 1 glass of water, 2 pinch of salt and 2 tsp of sugar
C. 1 glass of water, 3 pinch of salt and 4 tsp of sugar
D. 1 glass of water, 1 pinch of salt and 1 tsp of sugar

99. Milk code is a law that prohibits milk commercialization or artificial feeding for up to 2 years. Which law provides its legal basis?

A. Senate bill 1044
B. RA 7600
C. Presidential Proclamation 147
D. EO 51







100. A 40 year old mother in her third trimester should avoid?

A. Traveling
B. Climbing
C. Smoking
D. Exercising



ANSWERS
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Maternal/OB drill 8 answers

1. Which of the following would be useful in calculating Aling Martha's EDC?

A. Appearance of linea negra
B. First FHT by fetoscope
C. Increase pulse rate
D. Presence of edema

2. Which hormone is necessary for a positive pregnancy test?

A. Progesterone
B. HCG
C. Estrogen
D. Placental Lactogen

3. With this pregnancy, Aling Martha is a

A. P3 G3
B. Primigravida
C. P3 G4
D. P0 G3

4. In explaining the development of her baby, you identified in chronological order of growth of the fetus as it occurs in pregnancy as

A. Ovum, embryo, zygote, fetus, infant
B. Zygote, ovum, embryo, fetus, infant
C. Ovum, zygote, embryo, fetus, infant
D. Zygote, ovum, fetus, embryo, infant

5. Aling Martha states she is happy to be pregnant. Which behavior is elicited by her during your assessment that would lead you to think she is stressed?

A. She told you about her drunk husband
B. She states she has very meager income from selling
C. She laughs at every advise you give even when its not funny
D. She has difficulty following instructions

6. When teaching Aling Martha about her pregnancy, you should include personal common discomforts. Which of the following is an indication for prompt professional supervision?

A. Constipation and hemorrhoids
B. Backache
C. Facial edema
D. frequent urination

7. Which of the following statements would be appropriate for you to include in Aling Martha's prenatal teaching plan?

A. Exercise is very tiresome, it should be avoided
B. Limit your food intake
C. Smoking has no harmful effect on the growth and development of fetus
D. Avoid unnecessary fatigue, rest periods should be included in you schedule

8. The best advise you can give to Aling Martha regarding prevention of varicosities is

A. Raise the legs while in upright position and put it against the wall several times a day
B. Lay flat for most hours of the day
C. Use garters with nylon stocking
D. Wear support hose

9. In a 32 day menstrual cycle, ovulation usually occurs on the

A. 14th day after menstruation
B. 18th day after menstruation
C. 20th day after menstruation
D. 24th day after menstruation

10. Placenta is the organ that provides exchange of nutrients and waste products between mother and fetus. This develops by

A. First month
B. Third month
C. Fifth month
D. Seventh month

11. In evaluating the weight gain of Aling Martha, you know the minimum weight gain during pregnancy is

A. 2 lbs/wk
B. 5 lbs/wk
C. 7 lbs/wk
D. 10 lbs/wk

12. The more accurate method of measuring fundal height is

A. Millimeter
B. Centimeter
C. Inches
D. Fingerbreadths

13. To determine fetal position using Leopold's maneuvers, the first maneuver is to

A. Determine degree of cephalic flexion and engagement
B. Determine part of fetus presenting into pelvis
C. Locate the back,arms and legs
D. Determine what part of fetus is in the fundus

14. Aling Martha has encouraged her husband to attend prenatal classes with her. During the prenatal class, the couple expressed fear of pain during labor and delivery. The use of touch and soothing voice often promotes comfort to the laboring patient. This physical intervention is effective because

A. Pain perception is interrupted
B. Gate control fibers are open
C. It distracts the client away from the pain
D. Empathy is communicated by a caring person

15. Which of the following could be considered as a positive sign of pregnancy ?

A. Amenorrhea, nausea, vomiting
B. Frequency of urination
C. Braxton hicks contraction
D. Fetal outline by sonography

SITUATION : Maternal and child health is the program of the department of health created to lessen the death of infants and mother in the Philippines.

16. What is the goal of this program?

A. Promote mother and infant health especially during the gravida stage
B. Training of local hilots
C. Direct supervision of midwives during home delivery
D. Health teaching to mother regarding proper newborn care

17. One philosophy of the maternal and child health nursing is

A. All pregnancy experiences are the same for all woman
B. Culture and religious practices have little effect on pregnancy of a woman
C. Pregnancy is a part of the life cycle but provides no meaning
D. The father is as important as the mother

18. In maternal care, the PHN responsibility is

A. To secure all information that would be needing in birth certificate
B. To protect the baby against tetanus neonatorum by immunizing the mother with DPT
C. To reach all pregnant woman
D. To assess nutritional status of existing children

19. This is use when rendering prenatal care in the rural health unit. It serves as a guide in Identification of risk factors

A. Underfive clinic chart
B. Home based mother's record
C. Client list of mother under prenatal care
D. Target list of woman under TT vaccination

20. The schedule of prenatal visit in the RHU unit is

A. Once from 1st up to 8th month, weekly on the 9th month
B. Twice in 1st and second trimester, weekly on third trimester
C. Once in each trimester, more frequent for those at risk
D. Frequent as possible to determine the presence of FHT each week

SITUATION : Knowledge of the menstrual cycle is important in maternal health nursing. The following questions pertains to the process of menstruation

21. Menarche occurs during the pubertal period, Which of the following occurs first in the development of female sex characteristics?

A. Menarche
B. Accelerated Linear Growth
C. Breast development
D. Growth of pubic hair

22. Which gland is responsible for initiating the menstrual cycle?

A. Ovaries
B. APG
C. PPG
D. Hypothalamus

23. The hormone that stimulates the ovaries to produce estrogen is

A. GnRH
B. LH
C. LHRF
D. FSH

24. Which hormone stimulates oocyte maturation?

A. GnRH
B. LH
C. LHRF
D. FSH

25. When is the serum estrogen level highest in the menstrual cycle?

A. 3rd day
B. 13th day
C. 14th day
D. End of menstrual cycle

26. To correctly determine the day of ovulation, the nurse must

A. Deduct 14 days at the mid of the cycle
B. Subtract two weeks at cycle's end
C. Add 7 days from mid of the cycle
D. Add 14 days from the end of the cycle

27. The serum progesterone is lowest during what day of the menstrual cycle?

A. 3rd day
B. 13th day
C. 14th day
D. End of menstrual cycle

28. How much blood is loss on the average during menstrual period?

A. Half cup
B. 4 tablespoon
C. 3 ounces
D. 1/3 cup

29. Menstruation occurs because of which following mechanism?

A. Increase level of estrogen and progesterone level
B. Degeneration of the corpus luteum
C. Increase vascularity of the endothelium
D. Surge of hormone progesterone

30. If the menstrual cycle of a woman is 35 day cycle, she will approximately

A. Ovulate on the 21st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th day to the 26th day of her cycle
B. Ovulate on the 21st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th day to the 21th day of her cycle
C. Ovulate on the 22st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th day to the 26th day of her cycle
D. Ovulate on the 22st day with fertile days beginning on the 14th day to the 30th day of her cycle

SITUATION : Wide knowledge about different diagnostic tests during pregnancy is an essential arsenal for a nurse to be successful.

31. The Biparietal diameter of a fetus is considered matured if it is atleast

A. 9.8 cm
B. 8.5 cm
C. 7.5 cm
D. 6 cm

32. Quickening is experienced first by multigravida clients. At what week of gestation do they start to experience quickening?

A. 16th
B. 20th
C. 24th
D. 28th

33. Before the start of a non stress test, The FHR is 120 BPM. The mother ate the snack and the practitioner noticed an increase from 120 BPM to 135 BPM for 15 seconds. How would you read the result?

A. Abnormal
B. Non reactive
C. Reactive
D. Inconclusive, needs repeat

34. When should the nurse expect to hear the FHR using a fetoscope?

A. 2nd week
B. 8th week
C. 2nd month
D. 4th month

35. When should the nurse expect to hear FHR using doppler Ultrasound?

A. 8th week
B. 8th month
C. 2nd week
D. 4th month

36. The mother asks, What does it means if her maternal serum alph feto protein is 35 ng/ml? The nurse should answer

A. It is normal
B. It is not normal
C. 35 ng/ml indicates chromosomal abberation
D. 35 ng/ml indicates neural tube defect

37. Which of the following mothers needs RHOGAM?

A. RH + mother who delivered an RH - fetus
B. RH - mother who delivered an RH + fetus
C. RH + mother who delivered an RH + fetus
D. RH - mother who delivered an RH - fetus

38. Which family planning method is recommended by the department of health more than any other means of contraception?

A. Fertility Awareness Method
B. Condom
C. Tubal Ligation
D. Abstinence

39. How much booster dose does tetanus toxoid vaccination for pregnant women has?

A. 2
B. 5
C. 3
D. 4

40. Baranggay pinoybsn.tk has 70,000 population. How much nurse is needed to service this population?

A. 5
B. 7
C. 50
D. 70

SITUATION : Reproductive health is the exercise of reproductive right with responsibility. A married couple has the responsibility to reproduce and procreate.

41. Which of the following is ONE of the goals of the reproductive health concept?

A. To achieve healthy sexual development and maturation
B. To prevent specific RH problem through counseling
C. Provide care, treatment and rehabilitation
D. To practice RH as a way of life of every man and woman

42. Which of the following is NOT an element of the reproductive health?

A. Maternal and child health and nutrition
B. Family planning
C. Prevention and management of abortion complication
D. Healthy sexual development and nutrition

43. In the international framework of RH, which one of the following is the ultimate goal?

A. Women's health in reproduction
B. Attainment of optimum health
C. Achievement of women's status
D. Quality of life

44. Which one of the following is a determinant of RH affecting woman's ability to participate in social affairs?

A. Gender issues
B. Socio-Economic condition
C. Cultural and psychosocial factors
D. Status of women

45. In the philippine RH Framework. which major factor affects RH status?

A. Women's lower level of literacy
B. Health service delivery mechanism
C. Poor living conditions lead to illness
D. Commercial sex workers are exposed to AIDS/STD.

46. Which determinant of reproductive health advocates nutrition for better health promotion and maintain a healthful life?

A. Socio-Economic conditions
B. Status of women
C. Social and gender issues
D. Biological, Cultural and Psychosocial factors

47. Which of the following is NOT a strategy of RH?

A. Increase and improve contraceptive methods
B. Achieve reproductive intentions
C. Care provision focused on people with RH problems
D. Prevent specific RH problem through information dessemination

48. Which of the following is NOT a goal of RH?

A. Achieve healthy sexual development and maturation
B. Avoid illness/diseases, injuries, disabilities related to sexuality and reproduction
C. Receive appropriate counseling and care of RH problems
D. Strengthen outreach activities and the referral system

49. What is the VISION of the RH?

A. Attain QUALITY OF LIFE
B. Practice RH as a WAY OF LIFE
C. Prevent specific RH problem
D. Health in the hands of the filipino

SITUATION : Baby G, a 6 hours old newborn is admitted to the NICU because of low APGAR Score. His mother had a prolonged second stage of labor

50. Which of the following is the most important concept associated with all high risk newborn?

A. Support the high-risk newborn's cardiopulmonary adaptation by maintaining adequate airway
B. Identify complications with early intervention in the high risk newborn to reduce morbidity and mortality
C. Assess the high risk newborn for any physical complications that will assist the parent with bonding
D. Support mother and significant others in their request toward adaptation to the high risk newborn

51. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in a newborn with birth asphyxia?

A. Hyperoxemia
B. Acidosis
C. Hypocapnia
D. Ketosis

52. When planning and implementing care for the newborn that has been successfully resuscitated, which of the following would be important to assess?

A. Muscle flaccidity
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Decreased intracranial pressure
D. Spontaneous respiration

SITUATION : Nurses should be aware of the different reproductive problems.

53. When is the best time to achieve pregnancy?

A. Midway between periods
B. Immediately after menses end
C. 14 days before the next period is expected
D. 14 days after the beginning of the next period

54. A factor in infertility maybe related to the PH of the vaginal canal. A medication that is ordered to alter the vaginal PH is:

A. Estrogen therapy
B. Sulfur insufflations
C. Lactic acid douches
D. Na HCO3 Douches

55. A diagnostic test used to evaluate fertility is the postcoital test. It is best timed

A. 1 week after ovulation
B. Immediately after menses
C. Just before the next menstrual period
D. Within 1 to 2 days of presumed ovulation

56. A tubal insufflation test is done to determine whether there is a tubal obstruction. Infertility caused by a defect in the tube is most often related to a

A. Past infection
B. Fibroid Tumor
C. Congenital Anomaly
D. Previous injury to a tube

57. Which test is commonly used to determine the number, motility and activity of sperm is the

A. Rubin test
B. Huhner test
C. Friedman test
D. Papanicolau test

58. In the female, Evaluation of the pelvic organs of reproduction is accomplished by

A. Biopsy
B. Cystoscopy
C. Culdoscopy
D. Hysterosalpingogram

59. When is the fetal weight gain greatest?

A. 1st trimester
B. 2nd trimester
C. 3rd trimester
D. from 4th week up to 16th week of pregnancy

60. In fetal blood vessel, where is the oxygen content highest?

A. Umbilical artery
B. Ductus Venosus
C. Ductus areteriosus
D. Pulmonary artery

61. The nurse is caring for a woman in labor. The woman is irritable, complains of nausea and vomits and has heavier show. The membranes rupture. The nurse understands that this indicates

A. The woman is in transition stage of labor
B. The woman is having a complication and the doctor should be notified
C. Labor is slowing down and the woman may need oxytocin
D. The woman is emotionally distraught and needs assistance in dealing with labor

SITUATION : Cynthia, a 32 year old primigravida at 39-40 weeks AOG was admitted to the labor room due to hypogastric and lumbo-sacral pains. IE revealed a fully dilated, fully effaced cervix. Station 0.

62. She is immediately transferred to the DR table. Which of the following conditions signify that delivery is near?

I - A desire to defecate
II - Begins to bear down with uterine contraction
III - Perineum bulges
IV - Uterine contraction occur 2-3 minutes intervals at 50 seconds duration

A. I,II,III
B. I,II,III,IV
C. I,III,IV
D. II,III,IV

63. Artificial rupture of the membrane is done. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is the priority?

A. High risk for infection related to membrane rupture
B. Potential for injury related to prolapse cord
C. Alteration in comfort related to increasing strength of uterine contraction
D. Anxiety related to unfamiliar procedure

64. Cynthia complains of severe abdominal pain and back pain during contraction. Which two of the following measures will be MOST effective in reducing pain?

I - Rubbing the back with a tennis ball
II- Effleurage
III-Imagery
IV-Breathing techniques

A. II,IV
B. II,III
C. I,IV
D. I,II

65. Lumbar epidural anesthesia is administered. Which of the following nursing responsibilities should be done immediately following procedure?

A. Reposition from side to side
B. Administer oxygen
C. Increase IV fluid as indicated
D. Assess for maternal hypotension

66. Which is NOT the drug of choice for epidural anesthesia?

A. Sensorcaine
B. Xylocaine
C. Ephedrine
D. Marcaine

SITUATION : Helen, a 24 year old G4P3 at full term gestation is brought to the ER after a gush of fluid passes through here vagina while doing her holiday shopping.

67. She is brought to the triage unit. The FHT is noted to be 114 bpm. Which of the following actions should the nurse do first?

A. Monitor FHT ever 15 minutes
B. Administer oxygen inhalation
C. Ask the charge nurse to notify the Obstetrician
D. Place her on the left lateral position

68. The nurse checks the perineum of Helen. Which of the following characteristic of the amniotic fluid would cause an alarm to the nurse?

A. Greenish
B. Scantly
C. Colorless
D. Blood tinged

69. Helen asks the nurse. "Why do I have to be on complete bed rest? I am not comfortable in this position." Which of the following response of the nurse is most appropriate?

A. Keeping you on bed rest will prevent possible cord prolapse
B. Completed bed rest will prevent more amniotic fluid to escape
C. You need to save your energy so you will be strong enough to push later
D. Let us ask your obstetrician when she returns to check on you

70. Helen wants to know how many fetal movements per hour is normal, the correct response is

A. Twice
B. Thrice
C. Four times
D. 10-12 times

71. Upon examination by the obstetrician, he charted that Helen is in the early stage of labor. Which of the following is true in this state?

A. Self-focused
B. Effacement is 100%
C. Last for 2 hours
D. Cervical dilation 1-3 cm

SITUATION : Maternal and child health nursing a core concept of providing health in the community. Mastery of MCH Nursing is a quality all nurse should possess.

72. When should be the 2nd visit of a pregnant mother to the RHU?

A. Before getting pregnant
B. As early in pregnancy
C. Second trimester
D. Third trimester

73. Which of the following is NOT a standard prenatal physical examination?

A. Neck examination for goiter
B. Examination of the palms of the hands for pallor
C. Edema examination of the face hands, and lower extremeties
D. Examination of the legs for varicosities

74. Which of the following is NOT a basic prenatal service delivery done in the BHS?

A. Oral/Dental check up
B. Laboratory examination
C. Treatment of diseases
D. Iron supplementation

75. How many days and how much dosage will the IRON supplementation be taken?

A. 365 days / 300 mg
B. 210 days / 200 mg
C. 100 days/ 100mg
D. 50 days / 50 mg

76. When should the iron supplementation starts and when should it ends?

A. 5th month of pregnancy to 2nd month post partum
B. 1st month of pregnancy to 5th month post partum
C. As early in pregnancy up to 9th month of pregnancy
D. From 1st trimester up to 6 weeks post partum

77. In malaria infested area, how is chloroquine given to pregnant women?

A. 300 mg / twice a month for 9 months
B. 200 mg / once a week for 5 months
C. 150 mg / twice a week for the duration of pregnancy
D. 100 mg / twice a week for the last trimester of pregnancy

78. Which of the following mothers are qualified for home delivery?

A. Pre term
B. 6th pregnancy
C. Has a history of hemorrhage last pregnancy
D. 2nd pregnancy, Has a history of 20 hours of labor last pregnancy.

79. Which of the following is not included on the 3 Cs of delivery?

A. Clean Surface
B. Clean Hands
C. Clean Equipments
D. Clean Cord

80. Which of the following is unnecessary equipment to be included in the home delivery kit?

A. Boiled razor blade
B. 70% Isopropyl Alcohol
C. Flashlight
D. Rectal and oral thermometer

SITUATION : Pillar is admitted to the hospital with the following signs : Contractions coming every 10 minutes, lasting 30 seconds and causing little discomfort. Intact membranes without any bloody shows. Stable vital signs. FHR = 130bpm. Examination reveals cervix is 3 cm dilated with vertex presenting at minus 1 station.

81. On the basis of the data provided above, You can conclude the pillar is in the

A. In false labor
B. In the active phase of labor
C. In the latent phase of labor
D. In the transitional phase of labor

82. Pitocin drip is started on Pilar. Possible side effects of pitocin administration include all of the following except

A. Diuresis
B. Hypertension
C. Water intoxication
D. Cerebral hemorrhage

83. The normal range of FHR is approximately

A. 90 to 140 bpm
B. 120 to 160 bpm
C. 100 to 140 bpm
D. 140 to 180 bpm

84. A negative 1 [-1] station means that

A. Fetus is crowning
B. Fetus is floating
C. Fetus is engaged
D. Fetus is at the ischial spine

85. Which of the following is characteristics of false labor

A. Bloody show
B. Contraction that are regular and increase in frequency and duration
C. Contraction are felt in the back and radiates towards the abdomen
D. None of the above

86. Who's Theory of labor pain that states that PAIN in labor is cause by FEAR

A. Bradley
B. Simpson
C. Lamaze
D. Dick-Read

87. Which sign would alert the nurse that Pillar is entering the second stage of labor?

A. Increase frequency and intensity of contraction
B. Perineum bulges and anal orifice dilates
C. Effacement of internal OS is 100%
D. Vulva encircles the largest diameter of presenting part

88. Nursing care during the second stage of labor should include

A. Careful evaluation of prenatal history
B. Coach breathing, Bear down with each contraction and encourage patient.
C. Shave the perineum
D. Administer enema to the patient

SITUATION : Baby boy Jose was delivered spontaneously following a term pregnancy. Apgar scores are 8 and 9 respectively. Routine procedures are carried out.

89. When is the APGAR Score taken?

A. Immediately after birth and at 30 minutes after birth
B. At 5 minutes after birth and at 30 minutes after birth
C. At 1 minute after birth and at 5 minutes after birth
D. Immediately after birth and at 5 minutes after birth

90. The best way to position a newboarn during the first week of life is to lay him

A. Prone with head slightly elevated
B. On his back, flat
C. On his side with his head flat on bed
D. On his back with head slightly elevated

91. Baby boy Jose has a large sebaceous glands on his nose, chin, and forehead. These are known as

A. Milia
B. Lanugo
C. Hemangiomas
D. Mongolian spots

92. Baby boy Jose must be carefully observed for the first 24 hours for

A. Respiratory distress
B. Duration of cry
C. Frequency of voiding
D. Range in body temperature

93. According to the WHO , when should the mother starts breastfeeding the infant?

A. Within 30 minutes after birth
B. Within 12 hours after birth
C. Within a day after birth
D. After infant's condition stabilizes

94. What is the BEST and most accurate method of measuring the medication dosage for infants and children?

A. Weight
B. Height
C. Nomogram
D. Weight and Height

95. The first postpartum visit should be done by the mother within

A. 24 hours
B. 3 days
C. a week
D. a month

96. The major cause of maternal mortality in the Philippines is

A. Infection
B. Hemorrhage
C. Hypertension
D. Other complications related to labor,delivery and puerperium

97. According to the WHO, what should be the composition of a commercialized Oral rehydration salt solution?

A. Potassium : 1.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 2.5g ; Sodium Chloride 3.5g; Glucose 20 g.
A. Potassium : 1.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 2.5g ; Sodium Chloride 3.5g; Glucose 10 g.
A. Potassium : 2.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 3.5g ; Sodium Chloride 4.5g; Glucose 20 g.
A. Potassium : 2.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 3.5g ; Sodium Chloride 4.5g; Glucose 10 g.

98. In preparing ORESOL at home, The correct composition recommnded by the DOH is

A. 1 glass of water, 1 pinch of salt and 2 tsp of sugar
B. 1 glass of water, 2 pinch of salt and 2 tsp of sugar
C. 1 glass of water, 3 pinch of salt and 4 tsp of sugar
D. 1 glass of water, 1 pinch of salt and 1 tsp of sugar

99. Milk code is a law that prohibits milk commercialization or artificial feeding for up to 2 years. Which law provides its legal basis?

A. Senate bill 1044
B. RA 7600
C. Presidential Proclamation 147
D. EO 51

100. A 40 year old mother in her third trimester should avoid?

A. Traveling
B. Climbing
C. Smoking
D. Exercising
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