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HI there....welcome To test visual acuity, the nurse should ask the patient to cover each eye separately and read the eye chart with glasses and without, as appropriate. Fundamental of Nursing Before teaching any procedure to the patient, the nurse must first assess the patient’s willingness to learn and his current knowledge. Fundamentals of Nursing A blood pressure cuff that is too narrow can cause a falsely elevated blood pressure reading. Fundamentals of Nursing When preparing a single injection for a patient who takes regular and NPH insulin, the nurse should draw the regular insulin into the syringe first because it is clear and can be measured more accurately than the NPH insulin, which is turbid. Fundamentals of Nursing Rhonchi refers to the rumbling sounds heard on lung auscultation; they are more pronounced during expiration than during inspiration. Fundamentals of Nursing Gavage refers to forced feeding, usually through a gastric tube (a tube passed into the stomach by way of the mouth). Fundamentals of Nursing According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, physiologic needs (air, water, food, shelter, sex, activity, and comfort) have the highest priority. Fundamentals of Nursing Checking the identification band on a patient’s wrist is the safest and surest way to verify a patient’s identity. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient’s safety is the priority concern in developing a therapeutic environment. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should place the patient with a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube in semi-Fowler’s position. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse can elicit Trousseau’s sign by occluding the brachial or radial artery; hand and finger spasms during occlusion indicate Trousseau’s sign and suggest hypocalcemia. Fundamentals of Nursing For blood transfusion in an adult, the appropriate needle size is 16 to 20G. Fundamentals of Nursing Pain that incapacities a patient and can’t be relieved by drugs is called intractable pain. Fundamentals of Nursing In an emergency, consent for treatment can be obtained by fax, telephone, or other telegraphic transmission. Fundamentals of Nursing Decibel is the unit of measurement of sound. Fundamentals of Nursing Informed consent is required for any invasive procedure. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient who can’t write his or her name to give consent for treatment must have his or her X witnessed by two persons, such as a nurse, priest, or doctor. Fundamentals of Nursing The Z-track I.M. injection technique seals medication deep into the muscle, thereby minimizing skin irritation and staining. It requires a needle that is 1’’ (2.5 cm) or longer. Fundamentals of Nursing A registered nurse (RN) should assign a licensed vocational nurse (LVN) or licensed practical nurse (LPN) to perform bedside care, such as suctioning and medication administration. Fundamentals of Nursing The therapeutic purposed of a mist tent is to increase hydration of secretions. Fundamentals of Nursing If a patient can’t void, the first nursing action should be bladder palpation to assess for bladder distention. Fundamentals of Nursing The patient who uses a cane should carry it on the unaffected side and advance it at the same time as the affected extremity. Fundamentals of Nursing To fit a supine patient for crutches, the nurse should measure from the axilla to the sole and add 2” (5 cm) to that measurement. Fundamentals of Nursing Assessment begins with the nurse’s first encounter with the patient and continues throughout the patient’s stay. The nurse obtains assessment data through the health history, physical examination, and review of diagnostic studies. Fundamentals of Nursing The appropriate needle size for an insulin injection is 25G and ⅝" (1.5 cm) long. Fundamentals of Nursing Residual urine refers to urine that remains in the bladder after voiding. The amount of residual urine normally ranges from 50 to 100 ml. Fundamentals of Nursing The five stages of the nursing process are assessment, nursing diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation. Fundamentals of Nursing Planning refers to the stage of the nursing process in which the nurse assigns priorities to nursing diagnoses, defines short-term and long-term goals and expected outcomes, and establishes the nursing care plan. Fundamentals of Nursing Implementation refers to the stage of the nursing process in which the nurse puts the nursing care plan into action, delegates specific nursing interventions to members of the nursing team, and charts patient responses to nursing interventions. Fundamentals of Nursing Evaluation refers to the stage of the nursing process in which the nurse compares objective and subjective data with the outcome criteria and, if needed, modifies the nursing care plan, making the nursing process circular. Fundamentals of Nursing In the event of fire, the nurse should (1) remove the patient, (2) call the fire department, (3) attempt to contain the fire by closing the door, and (4) extinguish the fire, if it can be done safely. Fundamentals of Nursing Before administering any as need pain medication, the nurse should ask the patient to indicate the pain’s location. Fundamentals of Nursing Jehovah’s Witnesses believe that they shouldn’t receive blood components donated by other people. Fundamentals of Nursing When providing oral care for an unconscious patient, the nurse should position the patient on the side to minimize the risk of aspiration. Fundamentals of Nursing During assessment of distance vision, the patient should stand 20’ (6.1 m) from the chart. Fundamentals of Nursing The ideal room temperature for a geriatric patient or one who is extremely ill ranges form 66º to 76º F (18.8º to 24.4º C). Fundamentals of Nursing Normal room humidity ranges from 30% to 60%. Fundamentals of Nursing Hand washing is the single best method of limiting the spread of microorganisms. Hands should be washed for 10 seconds after routine contact with a patient and after gloves are removed. Fundamentals of Nursing To catheterize a female patient, the nurse should place her in the dorsal recumbent position. Fundamentals of Nursing A positive Homan’s sign may indicate thrombophlebitis. Fundamentals of Nursing Electrolytes in a solution are measured in milliequivalents per liter (mEq/L). A milliequivalent equals the number of milligrams per 100 milliliters of a solution. Fundamentals of Nursing Metabolism takes a place in two phases: anabolism (the constructive phase) and catabolism (the destructive phase). Fundamentals of Nursing The basal metabolic rate represents the amount of energy needed to maintain essential body functions. It is measured when the patient is awake and resting, hasn’t eaten for 14 to 18 hours, and is in a comfortable, warm environment. Fundamentals of Nursing Dietary fiber (roughage), which is derived from cellulose, supplies bulk, maintains adequate intestinal motility, and helps establish regular bowel habits. Fundamentals of Nursing Alcohol is metabolized primarily in the liver. Smaller amounts are metabolized by the kidneys and lungs. Fundamentals of Nursing Petechiae refers to tiny, round, purplish red spots that appear on the skin and mucous membranes as a result of intradermal or submucosal hemorrhage. Fundamentals of Nursing Purpura refers to a purple skin discoloration caused by blood extravasation. Fundamentals of Nursing Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (C6PD) deficiency is an inherited metabolic disorder characterized by red blood cells that are deficient in G6PD, a critical enzyme in aerobic glycolysis. Fundamentals of Nursing According to the standard precautions recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the nurse shouldn’t recap needles after use because most needle sticks result from missed needle recapping. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse administers a drug by I.V. push by delivering the dose directly into a vein, I.V. tubing, or catheter with a needle and syringe. Fundamentals of Nursing When changing the ties on a tracheostomy tube, the nurse should leave the old ties in place until the new ones are applied. Fundamentals of Nursing A nurse should have assistance when changing the ties on a tracheostomy tube. Fundamentals of Nursing A filter is always used for blood transfusions. Fundamentals of Nursing A four-point (quad) cane is indicated when a patient needs more stability than a regular cane can provide. Fundamentals of Nursing The patient should carry a cane on the unaffected side to promote a reciprocal gait pattern and distribute weight away from the affected leg. Fundamentals of Nursing A good way to begin a patient interview is to ask “What made you seek medical help?” Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should adhere to standard precautions for blood and body fluids when caring for all patients. Fundamentals of Nursing Potassium (K+) is the most abundant cation in intracellular fluid. Fundamentals of Nursing In the four-point gait (or alternating gait), the patient first moves the right crutch followed by the left foot and then the left crutch followed by the right foot. Fundamentals of Nursing In the three-point gait, the patient moves two crutches and the affected leg simultaneously and then moves the unaffected leg. Fundamentals of Nursing In the two-point gait, the patient moves the right leg and the left crutch simultaneously and then moves the left leg and the right crutch. Fundamentals of Nursing Vitamin B complex, the water-soluble vitamins essential for metabolism, include thiamine (B1), riboflavin (B2), niacin (B3), pyridoxine (B6), and cyanocobalamin (B12). Fundamentals of Nursing When being weighed, an adult patient should be lightly dressed and shoeless. Fundamentals of Nursing Before taking an adult’s oral temperature, the nurse should ensure that the patient hasn’t smoked or consumed hot or cold substances in the past 15 minutes. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse shouldn’t take a rectal temperature on an adult patient if the patient has a cardiac disorder; anal lesions, or bleeding hemorrhoids or has recently undergone rectal surgery. Fundamentals of Nursing In a patient with cardiac problems, rectal temperature measurement may stimulate a vagal response, leading to vasodilation and decreased cardiac output. Fundamentals of Nursing When recording pulse amplitude and rhythm, the nurse should use these descriptive measures: +3 indicates a bounding pulse (readily palpable and forceful); +2, a normal pulse (easily palpable); +1, a thready or weak pulse (difficult to detect); and 0, an absent pulse (not detectable). Fundamentals of Nursing The intraoperative period begins when a patient is transferred to the operating room bed and ends when the patient is admitted to the postanesthesia recovery unit. Fundamentals of Nursing On the morning of surgery, the nurse should ensure that the informed consent form has been signed; that the patient hasn’t taken anything by mouth since midnight, has taken a shower with antimicrobial soap, has had mouth care (without swallowing the water, has removed common jewelry, and has received preoperative medication as prescribed; and that vital signs have taken and recorded. Artificial limbs and other prostheses are usually removed. Fundamentals of Nursing Comfort measures, such as positioning the patient, performing backrubs, and providing a restful environment, may decrease the patient’s need for analgesics or may enhance their effectiveness. Fundamentals of Nursing A drug has three names: its generic name, which is used in official publications; its trade name or brand name (such as Tylenol), which is selected by the drug company; and its chemical name, which describes the drug’s chemical composition. Fundamentals of Nursing The patient should take a liquid iron preparation through a straw to avoid staining the teeth. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use the Z-track method to administer an I.M. injection of iron dextran (Imferon). Fundamentals of Nursing An organism may enter the body through the nose, mouth, rectum, urinary or reproductive tract, or skin. Fundamentals of Nursing In descending order, the levels of consciousness are alertness, lethargy, stupor, light coma, and deep coma. Fundamentals of Nursing To turn a patient by logrolling, the nurse folds the patient’s arms across the chest; extends the patient’s legs and inserts a pillow between them, if indicated; places a draw sheet under the patient; and turns the patient by slowly and gently pulling on the draw sheet. Fundamentals of Nursing The diaphragm of the stethoscope is used to hear high-pitched sounds such as breath sounds. Fundamentals of Nursing A slight blood pressure difference (5 to 10 mm Hg) between right and left arms is normal. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should place the blood pressure cuff 1'' (2.5 cm) above the antecubital fossa. Fundamentals of Nursing When instilling ophthalmic ointments, waste the first bed of ointment and then apply from the inner canthus to the outer canthus; twist the medication tube to detach the ointment. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use a leg cuff to measure blood pressure in an obese patient. Fundamentals of Nursing If the blood pressure cuff is applied too loosely, the reading will be falsely elevated. Fundamentals of Nursing Ptosis refers to eyelid drooping. Fundamentals of Nursing A tilt table is useful for a patient with a spinal cord injury, orthostatic hypotension, or brain damage because it can move the patient gradually from a horizontal to a vertical (upright) position. Fundamentals of Nursing To perform venipuncture with the least injury to the vessel, the nurse should turn the bevel upward when the vessel’s lumen is larger than the needle and turn it downward when the lumen is only slightly larger than the needle. Fundamentals of Nursing To move the patient to the edge of the bed for transfer, follow these steps: (1) Move the patient’s head and shoulders toward the edge of the bed. (2) Move the patient’s feet and legs to the edge of the bed (crescent position). (3) Place both the arms well under the patient’s hips and straighten the back while moving the patient toward the edge of the bed. Fundamentals of Nursing When being measured for crutches, a patient should wear his or her shoes. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should attach a restraint to a part of the bed frame that moves with the head, not to the mattress or side rails. Fundamentals of Nursing The mist in a mist tent should never become so dense that it obscures clear visualization of the patient’s respiratory pattern. Fundamentals of Nursing To administer heparin subcutaneously, the nurse should follow these steps: (1) Clean, but don’t rub, the site with alcohol. (2) Stretch the skin taut or pick up a well-defined skin fold. (3)Hold the shaft of the needle in a dart position. (4)Insert the needle into the skin at a right (90-degree) angle. (5)Firmly depress the plunger; but don’t aspirate. (6)Leave the needle in place for 10 seconds. (7)Withdraw the needle gently at the same angle it was inserted. (8)Apply pressure to the injection site with an alcohol pad. Fundamentals of Nursing For a sigmoidoscopy, the nurse should place the patient in a knee-chest or Sims’ position, depending on the doctor’s preference. Fundamentals of Nursing Maslow’s hierarchy of needs must be met in the following order: physiologic (oxygen, food, water, sex, rest, and comfort) safety and security, love and belonging, self-esteem and recognition, and self-actualization. Fundamentals of Nursing When caring for patient with a nasogastric tube, the nurse should apply a water-soluble lubricant to the nostril to prevent soreness. Fundamentals of Nursing During gastric lavage, a nasogastric tube is inserted, the stomach is flushed, and ingested substances are removed through the tube. Fundamentals of Nursing In documenting drainage on a surgical dressing, the nurse should include the size, color, and consistency of the drainage, for example, “10 mm of brown mucoid drainage noted on dressing.” Fundamentals of Nursing To elicit Babinski’s reflex, the nurse strokes the sole of the patient’s foot with a moderately sharp object, such as thumbnail. Fundamentals of Nursing In a positive Babinski’s reflex, the great toe dorsiflexes and the other toes fan out. Fundamentals of Nursing When assessing a patient for bladder distention, the nurse should check the contour of the lower abdomen for a rounded mass above the symphysis pubis. Fundamentals of Nursing The best way to prevent pressure ulcers is to reposition the bedridden patient at least every 2 hours. Fundamentals of Nursing Antiembolism stockings decompress the superficial blood vessels, thereby reducing the risk of thrombus formation. Fundamentals of Nursing The most convenient veins for venipuncture in a adult patient are the basilic and median cubital veins in the antecubital space. Fundamentals of Nursing From 2 to 3 hours before beginning a tube feeding, the nurse should aspirate the patient’s stomach contents to verify adequate gastric emptying. Fundamentals of Nursing People with type O blood are considered to be universal donors. Fundamentals of Nursing People with type AB blood are considered to be universal recipients. Fundamentals of Nursing Herts (Hz) refers to the unit of measurement of sound frequency. Fundamentals of Nursing Hearing protection is required when the sound intensity exceeds 84 dB; double hearing protection is required if it exceeds 104 dB. Fundamentals of Nursing Prothrombin, a clotting factor, is produced in the liver. Fundamentals of Nursing If a patient is menstruating when a urine sample is collected, the nurse should note this on the laboratory slip. Fundamentals of Nursing During lumbar puncture, the nurse must note the initial intracranial pressure and the cerebrospinal fluid color. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient who can’t cough to provide a sputum sample for culture may require a heated aerosol treatment to facilitate removal of a sample. Fundamentals of Nursing If eye ointment and eyedrops must be instilled in the same eye, the eyedrops should be instilled first. Fundamentals of Nursing When leaving an isolation room, the nurse should remove the gloves before the mask because fewer pathogens are on the mask. Fundamentals of Nursing Skeletal traction is applied to a bone using wire pins or tons. It is the most effective means of traction. Fundamentals of Nursing The total parenteral nutrition solution should be stored in a refrigerator and removed 30 to 60 minutes before use because delivery of a chilled solution can cause pain, hypothermia, venous spasm, and venous constriction. Fundamentals of Nursing Medication isn’t routinely injected I.M. into edematous tissue because it may not be absorbed. Fundamentals of Nursing When caring for a comatose patient, the nurse should explain each action to the patient in a normal voice. Fundamentals of Nursing When cleaning dentures, the sink should be lined with a washcloth. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient should void within 8 hours after surgery. Fundamentals of Nursing An EEG identifies normal and abnormal brain waves. Fundamentals of Nursing Stool samples for ova and parasite tests should be delivered to the laboratory without delay or refrigeration. Fundamentals of Nursing The autonomic nervous system regulates the cardiovascular and respiratory systems. Fundamentals of Nursing When providing tracheostomy care, the nurse should insert the catheter gently into the tracheostomy tube. When withdrawing the catheter, the nurse should apply intermittent suction for no more than 15 seconds and use a slight twisting motion. Fundamentals of Nursing A low-residue diet includes such as foods as roasted chicken, rice, and pasta. Fundamentals of Nursing A rectal tube should not be inserted for longer than 20 minutes; it can irritate the mucosa of the rectum and cause a loss of sphincter control. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient’s bed bath should proceed in this order: face, neck, arms, hands, chest, abdomen, back, legs, perineum. Fundamentals of Nursing When lifting and moving a patient, the nurse should use the upper leg muscles most to prevent injury. Fundamentals of Nursing Patient preparation for cholecystography includes ingestion of a contrast medium and a low-fat evening meal. Fundamentals of Nursing During occupied bed changes, the patient should be covered with a black blanket to promote warmth and prevent exposure. Fundamentals of Nursing Anticipatory grief refers to mourning that occurs for an extended time when one realizes that death is inevitable. Fundamentals of Nursing The following foods can alter stool color: beets (red), cocoa (dark red or brown), licorice (black), spinach (green), and meat protein (dark brown). Fundamentals of Nursing When preparing a patient for a skull X-ray, have the patient remove all jewelry and dentures. Fundamentals of Nursing The fight-or-flight response is a sympathetic nervous system response. Fundamentals of Nursing Bronchovesicular breath sounds in peripheral lung fields are abnormal and suggest pneumonia. Fundamentals of Nursing Wheezing refers to an abnormal, high-pitched breath sound that is accentuated on expiration. Fundamentals of Nursing Wax or a foreign body in the ear should be gently flushed out by irrigation with warm saline solution. Fundamentals of Nursing If a patient complains that his hearing aid is “not working,” the nurse should check the switch first to see if it’s turned on and then check the batteries. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should grade hyperactive biceps and triceps reflexes +4. Fundamentals of Nursing If two eye medications are prescribed for twice-daily instillation, they should be administered 5 minutes apart. Fundamentals of Nursing In a postoperative patient, forcing fluids helps prevent constipation. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse must administer care in accordance with standards of care established by the American Nurses Association, state regulations, and facility policy. Fundamentals of Nursing The kilocalorie (kcal) is a unit of energy measurement that represents the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 kilogram of water 1º C. Fundamentals of Nursing As nutrients move through the body, they undergo ingestion, digestion, absorption, transport, cell metabolism, and excretion. Fundamentals of Nursing The body metabolizes alcohol at a fixed rate regardless of serum concentration. Fundamentals of Nursing In an alcoholic beverage, its proof reflects its percentage of alcohol multiplied by 2. For example, a 100-proof beverage contains 50% alcohol. Fundamentals of Nursing A living will is a witnessed document that states a patient’s desire for certain types of care and treatment, which depends on the patient’s wishes and views and quality of life. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should flush a peripheral heparin lock every 8 hours (if it wasn’t used during the previous 8 hours) and as needed with normal saline solution to maintain patency. Fundamentals of Nursing Quality assurance is a method of determining whether nursing actions and practices meet established standards. Fundamentals of Nursing The five rights of medication administration are the right patient, right medication, right dose, right route of administration, and the right time. Fundamentals of Nursing Outside of the hospital setting, only the sublingual and transligual forms of nitroglycerin should be used to relieve acute anginal attacks. Fundamentals of Nursing The implementation phase of the nursing process involves recording the patient’s response to the nursing plan, putting the nursing plan into action, delegating specific nursing interventions, and coordinating the patient’s activities. Fundamentals of Nursing The Patient’s Bill of Rights offers guidance and protection to patients by stating the responsibilities of the hospital and its staff toward patients and their families during hospitalization. Fundamentals of Nursing To minimize the omissions and distortion of facts, the nurse should record information as soon as it is gathered. Fundamentals of Nursing When assessing a patient’s health history, the nurse should record the current illness chronologically, beginning with the onset of the problem and continuing to the present. Fundamentals of Nursing Drug administration is a dependent activity. The nurse can administer or withhold a drug only with the doctor’s permission. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse shouldn’t give false assurance to a patient. Fundamentals of Nursing After receiving preoperative medication, a patient isn’t competent to sign an informed consent form. Fundamentals of Nursing When lifting a patient, a nurse uses the weight of her body instead of the strength in her arms. Fundamentals of Nursing A nurse may clarify a doctor’s explanation to a patient about an operation or a procedure but must refer questions about informed consent to the doctor. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse shouldn’t use her thumb to take a patient’s pulse rate because the thumb has a pulse of its own and may be confused with the patient’s pulse. Fundamentals of Nursing An inspiration and an expiration count as one respiration. Fundamentals of Nursing Normal respirations are known as eupnea. Fundamentals of Nursing During a blood pressure measurement, the patient should rest the arm against a surface because using muscle strength to hold up the arm may raise the blood pressure. Fundamentals of Nursing Major unalterable risk factors for coronary artery disease include heredity, sex, race, and age. Fundamentals of Nursing Inspection is the most frequently used assessment technique. Fundamentals of Nursing Family members of an elderly person in a long-term care facility should transfer some personal items (such as photographs, a favorite chair, and knickknacks) to the person’s room to provide a homey atmosphere. Fundamentals of Nursing The upper respiratory tract warms and humidifies inspired air and plays a role in taste, smell, and mastication. Fundamentals of Nursing Signs of accessory muscle use include shoulder elevation, intercostal muscle retraction, and scalene and sternocleidosmastoid muscle use during respiration. Fundamentals of Nursing When patients use axillary crutches, their palms should bear the brunt of the weight. Fundamentals of Nursing Activities of daily living include eating, bathing, dressing, grooming, toileting, and interacting socially. Fundamentals of Nursing Normal gait has two phases: the stance phase, in which the patient’s foot rests on the ground, and the swing phase, in which that patient’s foot moves forward. Fundamentals of Nursing The phases of mitosis are prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should follow standard precautions in the routine care of all patients. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use the bell of the stethoscope to listen for venous hums and cardiac murmurs. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse can assess a patient’s general knowledge by asking questions such as “Who is the president for the United States?” Fundamentals of Nursing Cold packs are applied for the first 20 to 48 hours after an injury; then heat is applied. During cold application, the pack is applied for 20 minutes and then removed for 10 to 15 minutes to prevent reflex dilation (rebound phenomenon) and frostbite injury. Fundamentals of Nursing The pons is located above the medulla and consists of white matter (sensory and motor tracts) and gray matter (reflex centers). Fundamentals of Nursing The autonomic nervous system controls the smooth muscles. Fundamentals of Nursing A correctly written patient goal expresses the desired patient behavior, criteria for measurement, time frame for achievement, and conditions under which the behavior will occur. It is developed in collaboration with the patient. Fundamentals of Nursing The optic disk is yellowish pink and circular with a distinct border. Fundamentals of Nursing A primary disability results from a pathologic process; a secondary disability, from inactivity. Nurses usually are held liable for failing to keep an accurate count of sponges and other devices during surgery. Fundamentals of Nursing The best dietary sources of vitamin B6 are liver, kidney, pork, soybeans, corn, and whole-grain cereals. Fundamentals of Nursing Iron-rich foods, such as organ meats, nuts, legumes, dried fruit, leafy vegetables, eggs, and whole gains, generally have low water content. Fundamentals of Nursing Collaboration refers to joint communication and decision making between nurses and doctors designed to meet patients’ needs by integrating the care regimens of both professions in one comprehensive approach. Fundamentals of Nursing Bradycardia refers to a heart rate of fewer than 60 beats/minute. Fundamentals of Nursing A nursing diagnosis is a statement of a patient’s actual or potential health problems that can be resolved, diminished, or otherwise changed by nursing interventions. Fundamentals of Nursing During the assessment phase of the nursing process, the nurse collects and analyzes three types of data: health history, physical examination, and laboratory and diagnostic test data. Fundamentals of Nursing The patient’s health history consists primarily of subjective data, information supplied by patient. Fundamentals of Nursing The physical examination includes objective data obtained by inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation. Fundamentals of Nursing When documenting patient care, the nurse should write legibly, use only standard abbreviations, and sign every entry. The nurse should never destroy or attempt to obliterate documentation or leave vacant lines. Fundamentals of Nursing Factors that affect body temperature include time of day, age, physical activity, phase of menstrual cycle, and pregnancy. Fundamentals of Nursing The most accessible and commonly used artery for measuring a patient’s pulse rate is the radial artery, which is compressed against the radius to take the pulse rate. Fundamentals of Nursing The normal pulse rate of a resting adult is 60 to 100 beats/minute. The rate is slightly faster in women than in men and much faster in children than in adults. Fundamentals of Nursing Laboratory test results are an objective form of assessment data. Fundamentals of Nursing The measurement systems most often used in clinical practice are the metric system, apothecaries’ system, and household system. Fundamentals of Nursing Before signing an informed consent, a patient should know whether other treatment options are available and should understand what will occur during the preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative phase; the risk involved; and the possible complications. The patient also should have a general idea of the time required from surgery to recovery and should have an opportunity to ask questions. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient must sign a separate informed consent form for each procedure. Fundamentals of Nursing During percussion, the nurse uses quick, sharp tapping of the fingers or hands against body surfaces to produce sounds (that helps determine the size, shape, position, and density of underlying organs and tissues), elicit tenderness, or assess reflexes. Fundamentals of Nursing Ballottement is a form of light palpation involving gentle, repetitive bouncing of tissues against the hand and feeling their rebound. Fundamentals of Nursing A foot cradle keeps bed linen off the patient’s feet, which prevent skin irritation and breakdown, especially in a patient with peripheral vascular disease or neuropathy. Fundamentals of Nursing If the patient is a married minor, permission to perform a procedure can be obtained form the patient’s spouse. Fundamentals of Nursing Gastric lavage is the flushing of the stomach and removal of ingested substances through a nasogastric tube. It can be used to treat poisoning or drug overdose. Fundamentals of Nursing During the evaluation step of the nursing process, the nurse assesses the patient’s response to therapy. Fundamentals of Nursing Bruits commonly indicate a life- or limb-threatening vascular disease. Fundamentals of Nursing O.U. means each eye; O.D., right eye; and O.S, left eye. Fundamentals of Nursing To remove a patient’s artificial eye, the nurse depresses the lower lid. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use a warm saline solution to clean an artificial eye. Fundamentals of Nursing A thready pulse is very fine and scarcely perceptible. Fundamentals of Nursing Axillary temperature usually is 1º F lower than oral temperature. Fundamentals of Nursing After suctioning a tracheostomy tube, the nurse must document the color, amount, consistency, and odor of secretions. Fundamentals of Nursing On a medication prescription, the abbreviation p.c. means that the medication should be administered after meals. Fundamentals of Nursing After bladder irrigation, the nurse should document the amount, color, and clarity of the urine and the presence of clots or sediment. Fundamentals of Nursing Laws regarding patient self-determination vary from state to state. Therefore, the nurse must be familiar with the laws of the state in which she works. Fundamentals of Nursing Gauge refers to the inside diameter of a needle. The smaller the gauge, the larger the diameter. Fundamentals of Nursing An adult normally has 32 permanent teeth. Fundamentals of Nursing After turning a patient, the nurse should document the position used, time turned, and skin assessment findings. Fundamentals of Nursing PERRLA is an abbreviation for normal pupil assessment findings: pupils equal, round, and reactive to light with accommodation. Fundamentals of Nursing When purcussing a patient’s chest for postural drainage, the nurse’s hands should be cupped. Fundamentals of Nursing When measuring a patient’s pulse, the nurse should assess the rate, rhythms, quality, and strength. Fundamentals of Nursing Before transferring a patient from a bed to a wheelchair, the nurse should push the wheelchair’s footrests to the sides and lock its wheels. Fundamentals of Nursing When assessing respirations, the nurse should document the rate, rhythm, depth, and quality. Fundamentals of Nursing For a subcutaneous injection, the nurse should use a ⅝" 25G needle. Fundamentals of Nursing The notation “AA & O x 3” indicates that the patient is awake, alert, and oriented to person (knows who he is), place (knows where he is), and time (knows the date and time). Fundamentals of Nursing Fluid intake includes all fluids taken by mouth, including foods that are liquid at room temperature, such as gelatin, custard, and ice cream; I.V. fluids; and fluids administered in feeding tubes. Fluid output includes urine, vomitus, and drainage (such as from a nasogastric tube or from a wound) as well as blood loss, diarrhea or stool, and perspiration. Fundamentals of Nursing After administering an intradermal injection, the nurse shouldn’t massage the area because massage can irritate the site and interfere with results. Fundamentals of Nursing When administering an intradermal injection, the nurse should hold the syringe almost flat against the patient’s skin (at about a 15-degree angle) with the bevel up. Fundamentals of Nursing To obtain an accurate blood pressure, the nurse should inflate the manometer 20 to 30 mm Hg above the disappearance of the radial pulse before releasing the cuff pressure. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should count an irregular pulse for 1 full minute. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient who is vomiting while lying down should be placed in a lateral position to prevent aspiration of vomitus. Fundamentals of Nursing Prophylaxis is disease prevention. Fundamentals of Nursing Body alignment is achieved when the body parts are in proper relation to their natural position. Fundamentals of Nursing Trust is the foundation of a nurse-patient relationship. Fundamentals of Nursing Blood pressure in the force exerted by the circulating volume of blood on arterial walls. Fundamentals of Nursing Malpractice refers to the professional’s wrongful conduct, improper discharge of duties, or failure to meet standers of care, which causes harm to another. Fundamentals of Nursing As a general rule, nurses can’t refuse a patient care assignment; however, they may refuse to participate in abortions in most states. Fundamentals of Nursing A nurse can be found negligent if a patient is injured because the nurse failed to perform a duty that a reasonable and prudent person would perform or because the nurse performed an act that a reasonable and prudent person wouldn’t perform. Fundamentals of Nursing States have enacted Good Samaritan laws to encourage professionals to provide medical assistance at the scene of an accident without fear of a lawsuit arising from such assistance. These laws don’t apply to care provided in a health care facility. Fundamentals of Nursing A doctor should sign verbal and telephone orders within the time established by institutional policy, usually within 24 hours. Fundamentals of Nursing A competent adult has the right to refuse lifesaving medical treatment; however, the individual should be fully informed of the consequences of this refusal. Fundamentals of Nursing Although a patient’s health record or chart is the health care facility’s physical property, its contents belong to the patient. Fundamentals of Nursing Before a patient’s record can be released to a third party, the patient or patient’s legal guardian must give written consent. Fundamentals of Nursing Under the Controlled Substances Act, every dose of a controlled drug dispensed by the pharmacy must be counted for, whether the dose was administered to a particular patient or discarded accidentally. Fundamentals of Nursing A nurse can’t perform duties that violate a rule or regulation established by a state licensing board even if it is authorized by a health care facility or doctor. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should select a private room, preferably with a door that can be closed, to minimize interruptions during a patient interview. Fundamentals of Nursing In categorizing nursing diagnosis, the nurse should address actual life-threatening problems first, followed by potentially life-threatening concerns. Fundamentals of Nursing The major components of a nursing care plan are outcome criteria (patient goals) and nursing interventions. Fundamentals of Nursing Standing orders, or protocols, establish guidelines for treating a particular disease or set of symptoms. Fundamentals of Nursing In assessing a patient’s heart, the nurse normally finds the point of maximal impulse at the fifth intercostals space near the apex. Fundamentals of Nursing The S1 sound heard on auscultation is caused by closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves. Fundamentals of Nursing To maintain package sterility, the nurse should open the wrapper’s top flap away from the body, open side flap by touching only the outer part of the wrapper, and open the final flap by grasping the turned-down corner and pulling it toward the body. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse shouldn’t use a cotton-tipped applicator to dry a patient’s ear canal or remove wax because it may force cerumen against the tympanic membrane. Fundamentals of Nursing A patient’s identification bracelet should remain in place until the patient has been discharged from the health care facility and has left the premises. Fundamentals of Nursing The Controlled Substances Act designated five categories, or schedules, that classify controlled drugs according to their abuse liability. Fundamentals of Nursing Schedule I drugs, such as heroin, have a high abuse potential and have no currently accepted medical use in the United States. Fundamentals of Nursing Schedule II drugs, such as morphine, opium, and meperidine (Demerol), have a high abuse potential but have currently accepted medical uses. Their use may lead to physical or psychological dependence. Fundamentals of Nursing Schedule III drugs, such as paregoric and butabarbital (Butisol), have a lower abuse potential than Schedule I or II drugs. Abuse of Schedule III drugs may lead to moderate or low physical or psychological dependence, or both. Fundamentals of Nursing Schedule IV drugs, such as chloral hydrate, have a low abuse potential compared with Schedule III drugs. Fundamentals of Nursing Schedule V drugs, such as cough syrups that contain codeine, have the lowest abuse potential of the controlled substances. Fundamentals of Nursing Activities of daily living are actions that the patient must perform every day to provide self-care and interact with society. Fundamentals of Nursing Testing of the six cardinal fields of gaze evaluates the function of all extraocular muscles and cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. Fundamentals of Nursing The six types of heart murmurs are graded from 1 to 6. A grade 6 heart murmur can be heard with stethoscope slightly raised from the chest. Fundamentals of Nursing The most important goal to include in a care plan is the patient’s goal. Fundamentals of Nursing Fruits are high in fiber and low in protein and should be omitted from a low-residue diet. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use an objective scale to assess and quantify pain because postoperative pain varies greatly among individuals. Fundamentals of Nursing Postmortem care includes cleaning and preparing the deceased patient for family viewing, arranging transportation to the morgue or funeral home, and determining the disposition of belongings. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should provide honest answers to the patient’s questions. Fundamentals of Nursing Milk shouldn’t be included in a clear liquid diet. Fundamentals of Nursing Consistency in nursing personnel is paramount when caring for a child, and infant, or a confused patient. Fundamentals of Nursing The hypothalamus secretes vasopressin and oxytocin, which are stored in the pituitary gland. Fundamentals of Nursing The three membranes that enclose that brain and spinal cord are the dura mater, pia mater, and arachnoid. Fundamentals of Nursing A nasogastric tube is used to remove fluid and gas from the small intestine preoperatively or postoperatively. Fundamentals of Nursing Psychologists, physical therapists, and chiropractors aren’t authorized to write prescriptions for medication. Fundamentals of Nursing The area around a stoma should be cleaned with mild soap and water. Fundamentals of Nursing Vegetables have a high fiber content. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should use a tuberculin syringe to administer an S.C. injection of less than 1 ml. Fundamentals of Nursing For adults, S.C. injections require a 25G 1" needle; for infants, children, elderly, or very thin patients, they require a 25G to 27G ½" needle. Fundamentals of Nursing Before administering medication, the nurse should identify the patient by checking the identification band and asking the patient to state his name. Fundamentals of Nursing To clean the skin before an injection, the nurse should use a sterile alcohol swab and wipe from the center of the site outward in a circular motion. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse always should inject heparin deep into S.C. tissue at a 90-degree angle (perpendicular to the skin) to prevent skin irritation. Fundamentals of Nursing If blood is aspirated into the syringe before an I.M. injection, the nurse should withdraw the needle, prepare another syringe, and repeat the procedure. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse shouldn’t cut the patient’s hair without written consent from the patient or an appropriate relative. Fundamentals of Nursing If bleeding occurs after an injection, the nurse should apply pressure until the bleeding stops; if bruising occurs, the nurse should monitor the site for an enlarging hematoma. Fundamentals of Nursing When providing hair and scalp care, the nurse should begin combing at the end of the hair and work toward the head. Fundamentals of Nursing Frequency of patient hair care depends on the length and texture of the hair, duration of hospitalization, and patient’s condition. Fundamentals of Nursing Proper hearing aid function requires careful handling during insertion and removal, regular cleaning of the ear piece to prevent wax buildup, and prompt replacement of dead batteries. Fundamentals of Nursing The hearing aid marked with a blue dot is for the left ear; the one with the red dot is for the right ear. Fundamentals of Nursing A hearing aid shouldn’t be exposed to heat or humidity and shouldn’t be immersed in water. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should instruct a patient not to use hair spray while wearing a hearing aid. Fundamentals of Nursing The five branches of pharmacology are pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, pharmacotherapeutics, toxicology, and pharmacognosy. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should remove heel protectors every 8 hours to inspect the foot for signs of skin breakdown. Fundamentals of Nursing The purpose of heat application is to promote vasodilation, which reduces pain caused by inflammation. Fundamentals of Nursing A sutured surgical incision is an example of healing by first intention (healing directly, without granulation). Fundamentals of Nursing Healing by secondary intention (healing by granulation) is closure of the wound by the granulation tissue filling the defect and allowing reepithelialization to occur, beginning at the wound edges and continuing to the center, until the entire wound is covered. Fundamentals of Nursing Keloid formation is an abnormality in healing characterized by overgrowth of scar tissue at the wound site. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should administer procaine penicillin by deep I.M. injection in the upper outer portion of the buttocks in the adult or in the midlateral thigh in the child. The nurse shouldn’t massage the injection site. Fundamentals of Nursing The ascending colostomy drains fluid feces; the descending colostomy drains solid fecal matter. Fundamentals of Nursing A folded towel (called a scrotal bridge) can provide scrotal support for the patient with scrotal edema caused by vasectomy, epididymitis, or orchitis. Fundamentals of Nursing When giving an injection to the patient with a bleeding disorder, the nurse should use a small-gauge needle and apply pressure to the site for 5 minutes after the injection. Fundamentals of Nursing Platelets are the smallest and most fragile formed element of the blood and are essential for coagulation. Fundamentals of Nursing To insert a nasogastric tube, the nurse should first instruct the patient to tilt the head back slightly and then insert the tube. When the tube is felt curving at the pharynx, the nurse should tell the patient to tilt the head forward to close the trachea and open the esophagus by swallowing. (Sips of water can facilitate this action.) Fundamentals of Nursing According to families whose loved ones are in intensive care units, their four most important needs are to have questions answered honestly, to be assured that the best possible car is being provided, to know the prognosis, and to feel there is hope. Fundamentals of Nursing A double-bind communication when the verbal message contradicts the nonverbal message and the receiver is unsure of which message to respond to. Fundamentals of Nursing A nonjudgmental attitude displayed by the nurse demonstrates that she neither approves nor disapproves of the patient. Fundamentals of Nursing Target symptoms are those that the patient and others find most distressing. Fundamentals of Nursing Advise the patient to take aspirin on an empty stomach with a full glass of water and to avoid foods with acid such as coffee, citrus fruits, and cola. Fundamentals of Nursing For every patient problem, there is a nursing diagnosis; for every nursing diagnosis, there is a goal; and for every goal, there are interventions designed to make the goal a reality. The keys to answering examination questions correctly are identifying the problem presented, formulating a goal for that specific problem, and then selecting the intervention from the choices provided that will enable the patient to reach that goal. Fundamentals of Nursing Fidelity means loyalty and can be shown as a commitment to the profession of nursing and to the patient. Fundamentals of Nursing Giving an I.M. injection against the patient’s will and without legal authority is battery. Fundamentals of Nursing An example of a third-party payor is an insurance company. Fundamentals of Nursing On-call medication should be given within 5 minutes of receipt of the call. Fundamentals of Nursing Generally, the best method to determine the cultural or spiritual needs of the patient is to ask him. Fundamentals of Nursing An incident report shouldn’t be made part of the patient’s record but is an in-house document for the purpose of correcting the problem. Fundamentals of Nursing Critical pathways are a multidisciplinary guideline for patient care. Fundamentals of Nursing When prioritizing nursing diagnoses, use this hierarchy: (1) problems associated with airway, (2) those concerning breathing, and (3) those related to circulation. Fundamentals of Nursing The two nursing diagnoses with the highest priority that the nurse can assign are Ineffective airway clearance and Ineffective breathing pattern. Fundamentals of Nursing A subjective sign that a sitz bath has been effective is that patient expresses a decrease in pain or discomfort. Fundamentals of Nursing For the nursing diagnosis Diversional activity deficit to be valid, the patient must make the statement that he’s “bored, there is nothing to do” or words to that effect. Fundamentals of Nursing The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for an individual who doesn’t speak English is Communication, impaired, related to inability to speak dominant language (English). Fundamentals of Nursing The family of the patient who has been diagnosed as hearing impaired should be instructed to face the individual when they speak to him. Fundamentals of Nursing Up to age 3, the pinna should be pulled down and back to straighten the eustachian tube before instilling medication. Fundamentals of Nursing When administering eyedrops, the nurse should waste the first drop and instill the medication in the lower conjunctival sac to prevent injury to the cornea. Fundamentals of Nursing When administering eye ointment, the nurse should waste the first bead of medication and then apply the medication from the inner to the outer canthus. Fundamentals of Nursing When removing gloves and mask, the gloves, which most likely contain pathogens and are soiled, should be removed first. Fundamentals of Nursing Crutches should placed 6" (15 cm) in front of the patient and 6" to the side to assume a tripod position. Fundamentals of Nursing Listening is the most effective communication technique. Fundamentals of Nursing Process recording is a method of evaluating one’s communication effectiveness. Fundamentals of Nursing When feeding the elderly, limit high-carbohydrate foods because of the risk of glucose intolerance. Fundamentals of Nursing Passive range of motion maintains joint mobility whereas resistive exercises increase muscle mass. Fundamentals of Nursing Isometric exercises are performed on an extremity in a cast. Fundamentals of Nursing A back rub is an example of the gate-control theory of pain. Fundamentals of Nursing Anything below the waist is considered unsterile, a sterile field becomes unsterile when it comes in contact with nay unsterile item, a sterile field must be continuously monitored, and the 1" (2.5 cm) border around a sterile field is considered unsterile. Fundamentals of Nursing A “shift to the left” is evident when there is an increase in immature cells (bands) in the blood to fight an infection. Fundamentals of Nursing A “shift to the right” is evident when there is an increase in mature cells in the blood as seen in advanced liver diseases and pernicious anemia. Fundamentals of Nursing Before administering preoperative medication, make sure that an informed consent form has been signed and attached to the patient’s record. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should spend no more than 30 minutes per 8-hour shift in providing care to the patient with a radiation implant. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should stand near the patient’s shoulders for cervical implants and at the foot of the bed for head and neck implants. Fundamentals of Nursing The nurse should never be assigned to care for more than one patient with radiation implants. Fundamentals of Nursing Long-handled forceps and a lead-lined container should be in the room of the patient who has a radiation implant. Fundamentals of Nursing Generally, patients who have the same infection and are in strict isolation can share the same room. Fundamentals of Nursing Diseases requiring strict isolation include chickenpox, diphtheria, and viral hemorrhagic fever such as Marburg virus disease. Fundamentals of Nursing For the patient abiding by Jewish custom, milk and meat shouldn’t be served in the same meal. Fundamentals of Nursing Whether the patient can perform a procedure (psychomotor domain of learning) is a better indicator of the effectiveness of patient teaching than whether the patient can simply state the steps of the procedure (cognitive domain of learning). Fundamentals of Nursing Developmental stages according to Erik Erikson are trust versus mistrust (birth to 18 months), autonomy versus shame and doubt (18 months to 3 years), initiative versus guilt (3 to 5 years), industry versus inferiority (5 to 12 years), identity versus identity diffusion (12 to 18 years), intimacy versus isolation (18 to 25 years), generativity versus stagnation (25 to 60 years), and ego integrity versus despair (older than 60 years). Fundamentals of Nursing Face the hearing impaired patient when communicating with him. Fundamentals of Nursing A proper nursing intervention for the spouse of the patient who has suffered a serious incapacitating disease is to assist him in mobilizing a support system. Fundamentals of Nursing Hyperpyrexia refers to extreme elevation in temperature above 106º F (41.1º C). Fundamentals of Nursing

Maternal/OB drill 3

1. Mr. and Mrs. Cremasteric arrive at the clinic for their first pre natal visit. Mr. Crema tells the nurse that the women in his family usually have girl babies first and wonders why some women always have girls. The nurse correct response is:

a. “The sex of the baby is determined by the sperm.”
b. “Some women are just more fertile with females.”
c. “Nature determines whether the baby will be a girl or a boy.”
d. “The sex of the baby is determined by the egg.”

2. The hormone responsible for the development of the ovum during the menstrual cycle is?

a. Estrogen
b. Progesterone
c. Follicle Stimulating hormone (FSH)
d. Luteneizing hormone (LH)

3. Which hormone is not responsible for differentiation of male reproductive organs during fetal life?

a. Mullerian duct inhibitor (MDI)
b. Dyhydrotestosterone
c. Dehydroepiandosterone sulfate
d. Testosterone

4. Which principal factor causes vaginal pH to be acidic?

a. Cervical mucus changes
b. Secretion of the Skene’s gland
c. The action of the doderlein bacillus
d. Secretion of the bartholins gland

5. Family centered nursing care for women and newborn focuses on which of the following?
a. Assisting individuals and families achieve their optimal health
b. Diagnosing and treating problems promptly
c. Preventing further complications from developing
d. Conducting nursing research to evaluate clinical skills

6. When reviewing the ethical dilemmas facing maternal and newborn nurses today, which of the following has contributed to their complexity?
a. Limitation of available options
b. Support for one viable action
c. Advancement in technology
d. Consistent desirable standards

7. The frenulum and prepuce of the clitoris are formed by the?

a. Fossa Navicularis
b. Mons veneris
c. Labia majora
d. Labia minora


8. The vas deferens is a:

a. storage for spermatozoa
b. Site of spermatozoa production
c. Conduit of spermatozoa
d. Passageway of sperm

9. Cremasteric visits the clinic and is told that his sperm count is normal. A normal sperm count ranges from:

a. 20 to 100/ml
b. 100, 000 to 200, 000/ml
c. 100 to 200/ml
d. 20 to 100 million/ml

10. During which of the following phase of the menstrual cycle is it ideal for implantation of a fertilized egg to occur?

a. Ischemic phase
b. Menstrual phase
c. Proliferative phase
d. Secretory phase

11. Variation on the length of menstrual cycle are due to variations in the number of days in which of the following phase?

a. Proliferative phase
b. Luteal phase
c. Ischemic phase
d. Secretory phase

Situation: Mrs. Calamares G2P1 1001, comes out of the labor and delivery room and reports ruptured amniotic membranes and contractions that occur every 3 minutes lasting 50-60 seconds. The fetus is in LOA position
12. The nurse’s first action should be to:

a. Check the FHR
b.Call the physician
c. Check the vaginal discharge with nitrazine paper
d.Admit Mrs. Calamares to the delivery area

13. When asked to describe the amniotic fluid, Mrs. Calamares states that it is “brown-tinged”. This indicates that:

a. The fetus had infection
b. At some point, the fetus experienced oxygen deprivation
c. The fetus is in distress and should be delivered immediately
d. The fetus is not experiencing any undue stress

14. The nurse established an IV line, and then connects Calamares to an electronic fetal monitor. The fetal monitoring strip shows FHR deceleration occurring about 30 sec after each contraction begins; the FHR returns to baseline after the contraction is over. This type of deceleration is caused by:

a. Fetal head compression
b. Umbilical cord compression
c. Utero-placental insufficiency
d. Cardiac anomalies

15. With this type of deceleration, the nurse’s first action should be to:

a. Do nothing, this is a normal occurrence
b. Call the physician
c. Position the patient on her left side
d. Continue monitoring the FHR

16. Which of the following methods would be avoided for a woman who is 38 years old, has 3 children and smokes a pack of cigarette per day?

a. Oral contraceptives
b. Cervical cap
c. Diaphragm
d. IUD (Intra-uterine device)

17. A woman using diaphragm for contraception should be instructed to leave it in place for at least how long after intercourse?

a. 1 hour
b. 6 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 28 hours

18. When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to occur, which of the following is the most helpful criterion?

a. sperm count
b. sperm motility
c. Sperm maturity
d. Semen volume

19. A couple with one child had been trying, without success for several years to have another child. Which of the following terms would describe the situation?

a. Primary Infertility
b. Secondary Infertility
c. Irreversible infertility
d. Sterility

Situation: Melanie a 33y/o G1P0 at 32 weeks AOG is admitted to the Hospital with the diagnosis of PIH.

20. Magnesium Sulfate is ordered per IV. Which of the following should prompt the nurse to refer to the obstetricians prior to administration of the drug?

a. BP= 180/100
b. Urine output is 40 ml/hr
c. RR=12 bpm
d. (+) 2 deep tendon reflex

21. The nurse knows that Melanie is knowledgeable about the occurrence of PIH when she remarks:

a. “It usually appears anytime during the pregnancy”
b. “Its similar to cardio-vascular disease”
c. “PIH occurs during the 1st trimester”
d. “PIH occurs after the 20th wks AOG”



22. After several hours of MgSO4 administration to Melanie, she should be observed for clinical manifestations of:

a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Hypermagnesemia
d. Hypercalcemia

23. The nurse instructs Melanie to report prodromal symptoms of seizures associated with PIH. Which of the following will she likely identify?

a. Urine output of 15ml/hr
b. (-) deep tendon reflex
c. sudden increase in BP
d. Epigastric pain




Situation: The following questions pertain to intrapartum complications:

24. Which of the following may happen if the uterus becomes over stimulated by oxytocin during induction of labor?

a. Weak contractions prolonged to more than 70 sec
b. Titanic contractions prolonged for more than 90 sec
c. Increased pain with bright red vaginal bleeding
d. Increased restlessness

25. Which of the following factors is the underlying cause of dystocia?

a. Nutritional
b. Environmental
c. Mechanical
d. Medical

26. When Umbilical cord is inserted at the edge of the placenta is termed:

a. Central insertion
b. Battledore insertion
c. Velamentous insertion
d. Lateral insertion

27. When fetal surface of the placenta presents a central depression surrounded by a thickened grayish white ring, the condition is known as:

a. Placenta succenturiata
b. Placenta marginata
c. Fenestrated placenta
d. Placenta Circumvallata

28. Which of the following is derived form mesoderm?

a. lining of the GI tract
b. liver
c. brain
d. skeletal system
29. The average length of the umbilical cord in human is:

a. 35 cm
b. 55 cm
c. 65 cm
d. 45 cm



30. Urinary excretion of HCG is maximal between which days of gestation?

50-60
40-50
60-70
30-40

31. Which of the following is not a part of conceptus?

a. deciduas
b. amniotic fluid
c. fetus
d. membranes

32. Protection of the fetus against syphilis during the 1st trimester is attributed to:

a. amniotic fluid
b. langhan’s layer
c. syncitiothrophoblast
d. placenta

Situation: Diane is pregnant with her first baby. She went to the clinic for check up.

33. To determine the clients EDC, which day of the menstrual period will you ask?

a. first
b. last
c. third
d. second

34. According to Diane, her LMP is November 15, 2002, using the Naegle’s rule what is her EDC?

a. August 22, 2003
b. August 18, 2003
c. July 22, 2003
d. February 22, 2003

35. She complained of leg cramps, which usually occurs at night. To provide relief, the nurse tells Diane to:

a. Dorsiflex the foot while extending the knee when the cramps occur
b. Dorsiflex the foot while flexing the knee when the cramps occurs
c. Plantar flex the foot while flexing the knee when the cramps occur
d. Plantar flex the foot while extending the knee when the cramp occur



Situation: Marita is a nurse working in a STD clinic (question 36-45)

36. The main symptom of gonorrhea in male is:

a. Maculopapular rash
b. Jaundice
c. Urinary retention
d. Urethral discharge


37. In providing education to your clients, you should take into account the fact that the most effective method known to control the spread of HIV infection is:

a. Premarital serological screening
b. Prophylactic treatment of exposed person
c. On going sex education about preventive behaviors
d. Laboratory screening of pregnant woman

38. You counseled one of your clients who developed herpes genitalis concerning follow up care. Women who have developed the disease are at risk of developing:

a. Heart and CNS damage
b. Cervical cancer
c. Infant Pneumonia and eye infection
d. Sterility

39. Cremasteric, 19 y/o states that he has Gonorrhea. In performing assessment, the nurse should expect to identify which of the following symptoms?

a. Lesion on the palms and soles
b. A pinpoint rash on the penis
c. Urinary dribbling
d. Dysuria

40. The nurse should explain to Rhone, 15 y/o that untreated Gonorrhea in the female frequently leads to:

a. Obstruction of the Fallopian tubes
b. Ovarian cysts
c. Ulceration of the cervix
d. Endometrial polyps

41. Diane, a 16 y/o female high school student has syphilis. Treatment is initiated. Before the client leaves the clinic, which of the following actions is essential for the nurse to take?
a. Advice the client to avoid sexual contact for 2 months
b. Ask the client to identify her sexual contacts
c. Arrange for the client to have hearing and vision screening
d. Have the client to return to the clinic weekly for blood test

42. Kris complains of fishy smelling, white cheeslike vaginal discharge with pruritus. You suspect that Kris may have:

a. Moniliasis
b. Trichomoniasis
c. Syphilis
d. Gonorrhea

43. Demi who has history of repeated Trichomonas infections was advised to have Pap-smear by her physician. She asked you what the test is for. Your appropriate response is:

a. It’s a screening for cervical cancer
b. It’s a screening test for presence of cancer in the female reproductive tract
c. It is a diagnostic test for the presence of Trichomonas infection
d. It is a test that will show if she has cervical cancer or not.

44. The result of the pap-test is class II. This means that:

a. Presence of malignant cells
b. Presence of benign or possible malignancy
c. Normal finding
d. Possible inflammation or infections

45. You should be aware that a major difficulty in preventing spread of gonorrhea is that many women who have the disease:

a. Is un aware that they have it
b. Have milder form of the disease than most men
c. Are more reluctant to seek health care than men
d. Acquire the disease without having sexual contact

Situation: Mrs. Rhona Mahilum was admitted to the hospital with signs and symptoms of pre-eclampsia

46. Because of the possibility of convulsive seizures, which of the following should the nurse have available at the client’s bed side?
a. Oxygen and nasopharyngeal suction
b. leather restraints
c. cardiac monitor
d. venous cutdown set

47. One morning, Rhona tells the nurse that she think she is having contractions. Which of the following approaches should the nurse use to fully assess the presence of uterine co tractions?

a. Place the hand on opposite side of the upper part of the abdomen, and curve them somewhat around the uterine fundus.
b. Place the heel of the hand on the abdomen just above the umbilicus firmly
c. Place the hand flat on the abdomen over the uterine fundus, with the fingers apart and press lightly
d. Place the hand in the middle of the upper abdomen and then move hand several times to different parts of the abdomen

48. Exposure of a woman pregnant of a female offspring to which of the following substance increases the risk of the offspring during reproductive years to cervical and uterine cancer

steroids
thalidomides
diethylstilbestrol
tetracyclines

49. In which of the following conditions is vaginal rugae most prominent?
a. multiparous women
b. before menopause
c. after menopause
d. nulliparous waman

50. The deepest part o the perineal body surrounding the urethra, vagina and rectum that when damaged can result to cystocele, rectocele and urinary stress incontinence is the?

a. Pubococcygeus muscle
b. Spinchter of urethra and anus
c. Bulbocavernous muscle
d. Ischiocavernous muscle

Situation: Review of concepts of parturition was made by the clinical instructor to a group of nursing students preliminary to their assignment to Labor and delivery room
51. Which plays an important role in the initiation of labor?

a. maternal adrenal cortex
b. fetal adrenal cortex
c. fetal adrenal medulla
d. maternal adrenal medulla

52. Which is not considered an uteroronin?

a. Prostaglandin
b. Endothelin-1
c. Oxytocin
d. Relaxin




53. Which is a primary power of labor?

a. uterine contractions
b. pushing of the mother
c. intrathoracic pressure
d. abdominal contraction

54. The lower uterine segment is formed from the:

a. cervix
b. isthmus and cervix
c. body of the uterus
d. isthmus

55. Ripening of the cervix occurs during the:

a. first stage
b. second stage
c. third stage
d. fourth stage

56. In the second stage of labor, uterine contraction last:

a. 20 seconds
b. 30 seconds
c. 60 seconds
d. 120 seconds

57. The time between uterine contractions is:

a. intensity
b. interval
c. duration
d. frequency

58. Midpelvic capacity may be precisely determined by:

a. imaging studies
b. clinical measurement of the sidewall convergence
c. clinical measurement of the ischial spine prominence
d. sub pubic angel measurement







59. The inanimate bone of the pelvis is not composed of the:

a. sacrum
b. ilium
c. Pubis
d. Ischium

60. Which does not refer to the transverse diameter of the pelvic outlet?

a. Bi-ischial diameter
b. Bi-spinous diameter
c. Bi-tuberous diameter
d. Intertuberous diameter

61. The Antero-posterior diameter of the pelvic inlet where the fetus will likely most difficulty during labor is the:

a. Diagonal conjugate
b. True conjugate
c. conjugate Vera
d. obstetric conjugate

62. The true conjugate can be measured by subtracting ______ to the diagonal conjugate?

a. 2.5 – 3 cm
b. 3.5 – 4 cm
c. 3 – 4 cm
d. 1.5 – 2 cm

63. The most important muscle of the pelvic floor is the:

a. levator ani muscle
b. ischiocavernous
c. bulbocavernous
d. pubococcygeous

64. Which pelvic shape has the poorest prognosis fro vaginal delivery?

a. platypelloid
b. anthropoid
c. android
d. gynecoid

65. The two pubic bones meet anteriorly at the:

a. symphysis pubis
b. coccyx
c. sacrococcygeal
d. sacro-illiac joint

66. In the second stage of labor, expulsion of the fetus from birth canal depends on which important factor?
a. Maternal bearing down
b. Cervical dilatation
c. Uterine contractions
d. Adequate pelvic size

67. In what presentation is the head in extreme flexion?

a. sinciput
b. brow
c. vertex
d. face

Situation: a 26 y/o primigravida admitted to the hospital. Vaginal exam reveals that her cervix is 5cm dilated, 80% effaced and the presenting part in zero station, membranes still intact, occiput is in posterior position

68. Due to fetal position, the nurse caring for her would be correct in telling her that:

a. she will not have the urge to bear down when she becomes fully dilated
b. she can expect to have more back discomfort than most woman in labor
c. the position of baby’s head is optimum for passing through the pelvis
d. a caesarian section may be necessary to deliver the baby in thin position

69. Upon IE, you noted that the cervix ix ¼ its original length. This mean that effacement is:

a. 25%
b. 75%
c. 100%
d. 50%

70. Because of the position of the fetus, an episiotomy has to be performed to enlarge the birth canal. Which of the following is an advantage of episiotomy over lacerations?

a. it is more difficult to repair than laceration
b. it is more painful than laceration
c. it involve a more blood loss than laceration
d. heals more faster than laceration

71. Supporting the perenium at the time of crowning will facilitate:

a. flexion of the fetal head
b. external rotation
c. expulsion of the fetal head
d. expulsion

72. When the bi-parietal diameter of the fetal head passes through the pelvic inlet, this is referred as:

a. descent
b. flexion
c. engagement
d. extension

73. Sudden gush of blood or lengthening of the cord after the delivery of infant should warn the nurse of:

a. placenta acrreta
b. placental separation
c. placental retention
d. abruption placenta

Situation: Nurse Tsunade is a staff nurse in the OB ward of Konoha Medical Hospital

74. When separation begins at the center of the placenta and slides down the birth canal like a folded umbrella this is referred as:

a. Duncan mechanism
b. Shultz mechanism
c. Brandt Andrews mechanism
d. Ritgen’s maneuver

75. Which of the following is not true regarding the third stage of labor?

a. Care should be taken in the administration of bolus of oxytocin because it can cause hypertension
b. Signs of placental separation are lengthening of the cord, sudden gush of blood and sudden change in shape of the uterus
c. It ranges from the time of expulsion of the fetus to the delivery of the placenta
d. The placenta is delivered approximately 5-15 minutes after delivery of the baby

76. In the immediate postpartum period the action of methylegonovine is to:

a. cause sustained uterine contractions
b. causes intermittent uterine contractions
c. relaxes the uterus
d. induces sleep so that the mother can rest after an exhausting labor

77. Rhina is a primipara hospitalized due to preeclampsia. The doctor decided to perform NST. The nurse should apply the fetal transducer over the fetus:

a. chest
b. back
c. head
d. buttocks

78. Marisse, a newly delivered multipara complains of heavy and painful breast accompanied by fever. The nurse tells Gina that it is normal breast engorgement as the fever is characterized by

a. More than 38 degrees
b. Does not last more than 34 hours
c. Caused by infection
d. Needs to be treated with antibiotic

79. Postpartum depression occurs during which time frame?

a. within weeks after delivery
b. within 12 weeks
c. within 16 weeks
d. within 24 hours

80. Demi, a 38 y/o multipara is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of femoral thrombophlebitis. The nurse assesses the patient with:

a. burning on urination
b. leg pain
c. abdominal pain
d. increased lochial flow

81. Fever, foul lochial discharge and subinvolution of the uterus are signs of:

a. puerperal psychosis
b. puerperal sepsis
c. postpartum hemorrhage
d. hypertensive disorder

82. Which is most important when caring for a high risk postpartum clients?

a. discussing hygiene and nutrition
b. referring the mother to others for emotional support
c. discussing complications and treatment
d. promoting mother-newborn contact

83. A direct cause of mis-management of the third stage of labor is:

a. inversion of the uterus
b. cord prolapse
c. prolonged labor
d. all of these

84. Rachel, a diabetic woman at 36 weeks gestation is scheduled for biophysical profile in order to:

a. ascertain correct gestational age
b. determine fetal lung maturity
c. determine fetal well being
d. determine fetal size and obvious congenital anomaly

85. In a primigravida, the following demotes contracted pelvis except:

a. absence of quickening
b. absence of lightening
c. absence of engagement
d. none of these

86. Which of the following changes in Diane’s BP would nurse Tsunade not expect?

a. it tends to be highest in sitting
b. BP may increase a little in the 2nd tri
c. It should be taken at every visit at the clinic
d. It is normal for blood pressure to increase as much as 33 in systolic in the 3rd tri when a woman is near delivery

87. Nurse Tsunade referred to Diane to an Obstetrician. At 8 months she was orderd for a contraction stress test and the result is negative. Diane asked when she should be back for her next check up?

a. Monthly
b. Within 24-hours
c. Within a week
d. Weekly for 2 weeks then monthly

89. Diane wants to know how many fetal movements per hour is normal. The correct response of Nurse tsunade is:

a. twice
b. thrice
c. four times
d. 10-12 times

90. Which of the following statement about L/S ratio in amniotic fluid is correct?

a. a slight variation in technique does not significantly affect the accuracy of result
b. a L/S ratio of 2:1 is incompatible with life
c. a L/S ratio of less than 1:0 is compatible with fetal survival
d. when L/S ratio is 2:1 below, majority of infants develop respiratory distress

91. Every visit, you obtain the pregnant woman’s fundic height.. At what age of gestion does the fundic height in cm strongly correlates with gestational age in wks?

a. 20-24 wks
b. 18-24 wks
c. 18-32 wks
d. 12-38 wks

92. Which is not an indication of amniocentesis?

a. previous pregnancy with chromosomal abnormal fetus
b. down syndrome in siblings
c. pregnancies in women over 35 y/o
d. at 8 wks gestation for chromosomal study

Situation: Erica is 24 y/o Filipina married to an American. She is pregnant for the second time and now at 8 weeks AOG. She is RH (-) with blood type B

93. Erica gave birth to a term baby with yellowish skin and sclera. The baby is placed on phototherapy. The treatment is effective when blood test shows:

a. Low serum bilirubin
b. O2 level of 99%
c. Normal RBC and WBC count
d. Low platelet count

94. Because of rapidly rising bilirubin level, exchange transfusion was performed on Erica’s NB. The nurse understands that the blood to be transfused to the baby should be:

a. Type B, RH +
b. Type O, RH –
c. ABO compatible, RH –
d. Type B, RH –

95. Immediately after delivery of Kikay’s Baby, the nurse should remember to:

a. delay clamping of the cord to previde the newborn with more blood
b. cut immediately after birth of the baby
c. administer RHoGam to the NB immediately on the 3rd stage of labor
d. place the NB in an isolette for phototherapy

96. The doctor ordered Kleihauer-Betke. The nurse know which of the following to be wrong about the test:

a. it is used to identify the amount of antibodies in the maternal serum
b. it is used to determine presence of fetal blood
c. it is used to asses whether the mother is RH – or RH +
d. It is used to determine fetal blood type and RH factor


97. Which of the following findings in Erica’s history would identify a need for her to receive RHo (d) immune globulin?

a. Rh -, coombs +
b. Rh -, Coombs –
c. Rh +, Coombs –
d. Rh +, Coombs +

98. The portion of the placenta overlying the blastocyst

a. decidua capsularis
b. decidua vera
c. decidua basalis
d. decidua parietalis

99. The cardinal function of deciduas is

a. Immune resonse
b. Production of hormones
c. Maintenance of pregnancy
d. None of the above

100. O2 and Co2 are exchanged in the placenta through the process of:

a. pinocytosis
b. diffusion
c. facilitated diffusion
d. active transport


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