Compilation of NLE practice tests and drills

Answer all the drill honestly and check your answers honestly...
review it all again until you master and you understand..this will help you a lot..remember that you should know your basic concepts so that you can get the answers!!!so master all the concepts and try to understand the questions...GOODLUCK

Fundamenals of Nursing Practice Tests

1. Basic Concept of Nursing Asepsis 15 items
   
2. Basic Concept of Loss Grief and Dying 15 items
   
3. Basics of Self Concepts 15 items
   
4. Basics of Perioperative Nursing 15 items
   
5. Basic Concept of Sensory Stimulation 15 items
   
6. Basic Concept of Sexuality 15 items
   
7. Basic Concept of Stress and Adaptation 15 items
   
8. Basic Concept of Vital Signs 15 items
   
9. Basic Concept of Health Assessment 15 items
   
10. Basic Concept of Safety15 items
    

1. Fundamentals of Nursing Drill 1
2. Fundamentals of Nursing Drill 2
3. Fundamentals of Nursing Drill 3
4. Fundamentals of Nursing Drill 4
5. Fundamentals of Nursing Drill 5
6. Fundamentals of Nursing Drill 6
7. Fundamentals of Nursing Drill 7
8. Fundamentals of Nursing Drill 8
9. Fundamentals of Nursing Drill 9
10. Fundamentals of Nursing Drill 10
11. Fundamentals of Nursing Drill 11
12. Fundamentals of Nursing Drill 12
    
13. Fundamentals of Nursing Drill 13
    
14. Fundamentals of Nursing Drill 14

PEDIATRIC DRILLS

1. Pediatric Drill 1
2. Pediatric Drill 2
3. Pediatric Drill 3 50 items
4. Pediatric Drill 4 50 items
5. Pediatric Drill 5 50 items
6. Pediatric Drill 6 50 items
   
7. Pediatric Drill 7 50 items
8. Pediatric Drill 8 50 items
9. Pediatric Drill 9 50 items
10. Pediatric Drill 10 50 items

Maternal/OB Drills

1. Maternal/OB drill 1
2. Maternal/OB drill 2
3. Maternal/OB drill 3 100 items
4. Maternal/OB drill 4 100 items
5. Maternal/OB drill 5 100 items
6. Maternal/OB drill 6 50 items
7. Maternal/OB drill 7 50 items
8. Maternal/OB drill 8 100 items

CHN Drills

1. CHN drill 1
2. CHN drill 2
3. CHN drill 3
4. CHN drill 4
5. CHN drill 5
6. CHN drill 6
7. CHN drill 7

Psychiatric Nursing Drills

1. Psyche Drill 1
2. Psyche Drill 2
3. Psyche Drill 3
4. Psyche Drill 4
5. Psyche Drill 5
6. Psyche Drill 6
7. Psyche Drill 7
   

Medical and Surgical Nursing Drills

1. Medical and Surgical Nursing Drill 1
2. Medical and Surgical Nursing Drill 2
3. Medical and Surgical Nursing Drill 3
4. Medical and Surgical Nursing Drill 4
   
5. Medical and Surgical Nursing Drill 5
6. Medical and Surgical Nursing Drill 6
7. Medical and Surgical Nursing Drill 7
8. Medical and Surgical Nursing Drill 8
   

Nursing Research Drill

1. NSG Research drill
   

NLE Practice Tests


DEC 2006 Nursing practice tests 1 to 5

JUNE 2007 Nursing practice tests 1 to 5

DEC 2007 Nursing practice tests 1

Practice tests with rationales

Community Health Nursing
download

Prof. Adjustment, Leadership and Management, Research
download

Maternal and Child Nursing
download

Medical and Surgical Nursing
download

Psychiatric Nursing
download

***Common Board Questions 292 items
Basic Concept Drill 500 items

Fundamentals of Nursing Drill 6

1.) The proper size of urethral catheter for female patient is:
A.) Fr.12-14
B.) Fr. 16-18
C.) Fr. 8-10
D.) Fr. 22-24

2.) The length of urethral catheter insertion in a male patient is:
A.) 3-4 inches
B.) 5-6 inches
C.) 6-9 inches
D.) 9-12 inches

3.) The rationale for lateral or upward anchoring of the urethral catheter in male is to:
A.) Prevent pressure at the penoscrotal area
B.) Promote comfort
C.) Secure the catheter well
D.) Provide privacy

4.) Gradual decompression of the distended bladder is observed primarily to:
A.) Monitor urine output
B.) Maintain asepsis
C.) Prevent shock or hemorrhage
D.) Prevent discomfort

5.) To ensure success of the bladder-retraining program in client with urinary incontinence, the initial nursing is:
A.) Determine the client’s usual voiding pattern
B.) Establish a regular voiding time of every 1-2 hours for the client
C.) Provide adequate fluid intake
D.) Instruct the client to avoid carbonated beverages

6.) The glands which secrete sweat that may become unpleasant in odor when acted upon by microorganisms are:
A.) Eccrine glands
B.) Apocrine glands
C.) Sebaceous glands
D.) Meibonian glands

7.) The most effective nursing measure to relieve dryness of skin is:
A.) Increase fluid intake
B.) Apply alcohol on the skin
C.) Bathe the client daily
D.) Apply alcohol on the skin

8.) The following are appropriate nursing measures to manage acne EXCEPT:
A.) Take daily bath
B.) Adequate exposure to sunlight
C.) Adequate rest and sleep
D.) Take foods rich in carbohydrates

9.) The first line of defense of the body is:
A.) Antigen-antibody response
B.) Immune-response
C.) Intact skin and mucous membrane
D.) Body secretions

10.) The initial nursing action when providing bed bath is:
A.) Close the door and windows of the patient’s room
B.) Inform the client and explain the purpose of the procedure
C.) Remove the client’s gown under the cover of the top sheet
D.) Place the bed in flat position

11.) The best position for the female client during perineal care is:
A.) Supine
B.) Dorsal recumbent
C.) Lateral
D.) Semi-Fowler’s

12.) Which of the following is the most important nursing consideration when performing perineal care?
A.) Use front to back stroke
B.) Use posterior to anterior stroke
C.) Clean from inner to outer area
D.) Use rubbing stroke

13.) Which of the following is inappropriate nursing action when performing genital care to a male client?
A.) Wear gloves
B.) Use circular motion from the penile shaft towards the glans penis
C.) Retract prepuce if uncircumcised
D.) use moist washcloth with soap

14.) The proper manner of trimming the toenails is:
A.) Trim the lateral edges of the toenails
B.) Trim the toenails with pair of scissors
C.) Trim the toenails with pointed tips
D.) Trim toenails straight across

15.) Which of the following should not be included when patient teaching on foot care?
A.) Wash the feet daily and pat dry
B.) Use warm water for footsoak
C.) Do not go barefooted
D.) File corns and calluses

16.) A foot disorder caused by fungus, characterized by scaling and cracking of the skin in the interdigital spaces of the toes is:
A.) Tinea pedis
B.) Callus
C.) Corns
D.) Unguis incarnates

17.) The most effective measure to prevent tooth decay is:
A.) Drink milk daily
B.) Eat fruits and vegetables
C.) Thorough brushing of the teeth
D.) Have dental check up every 6 months

18.) Tartar is described as:
A.) An invisible soft film of bacteria saliva, epithelial cells and leukocytes
B.) A visible hard deposit of the plaque and bacteria that accumulate in gum lines
C.) Decayed tooth
D.) Accumulation of foul matter on the gums and teeth

19.) Which of the following are appropriate nursing actions when rendering hair shampoo to a patient?
A.) Plug the ears with cotton balls
B.) Use warm water
C.) Place Kelly pad under the head
D.) AOTA

20.) Infestation of the scalp with lice is:
A.) Pediculosis humanis
B.) Pediculosis pubis
C.) Pediculosis capitis
D.) Pediculosis corporis

21.) Which of the following should be included when providing patient teaching on hygienic measures?
A.) Do not rub the eyes
B.) Remove cerumen from the ear with cotton-tipped applicator
C.) Blow the nose with one nares closed
D.) Use eye drops at regular basis

22.) The following are nursing consideration when bed making EXCEPT:
A.) Practice asepsis
B.) Finish one side of the bed at a time
C.) Avoid overreaching
D.) Shake linens to remove dirt

23.) If the client is unconscious, the following are appropriate nursing measures when providing oral care EXCEPT:
A.) Place the patient in lateral position
B.) Use hard-bristled toothbrush
C.) Use cotton swabs
D.) Irrigate the mouth with water using asepto syringe and suction the solution adequately

24.) A flat, circumscribed area of color, with no elevation of its surface, less than 1 cm. in size is:
A.) Macule
B.) Papule
C.) Bulla
D.) Pustule

25.) A skin lesion which fluid-filled, less than 1 cm in size is:
A.) Macule
B.) Papule
C.) Vesicle
D.) Bulla

26.) Body mechanics is:
A.) Manner of walking
B.) Maintaining good posture
C.) Efficient, coordinated, and safe use of the body to produce motion and maintain balance during activity
D.) Maintaining one’s poise

27.) The following are principles of good body mechanics when performing nursing procedures EXCEPT:
A.) Start any body movement with proper alignment
B.) Pulling creates less friction than pushing
C.) Lower the head of the client’s bed before moving him up in bed
D.) Before moving objects, increase your stability by putting your feet together

28.) Pronation means:
A.) Moving the forearm with the palms facing downward
B.) Moving the forearm with the palms facing upward
C.) Turning the sole of the foot outward
D.) Turning the sole of the foot outward

29.) Moving an arm away from the body is:
A.) Adduction
B.) Abduction
C.) Rotation
D.) Circumduction

30.) When turning a client to the side, which of the following is not appropriate nursing action?
A.) Move the client to one side of the bed before turning
B.) Untuck the topsheet at the foot part of the bed to facilitate change of position
C.) Turn the client towards you with your hips, knees and ankles flexed, feet apart
D.) Turn the client away from you, with your back bent

31.) To prevent thrombophlebitis in bedridden client, the following are appropriate nursing actions EXCEPT:
A.) Turn the client every one to two hours
B.) Perform passive leg exercises
C.) Elevate the legs to promote venous return
D.) Massage the legs when painful

32.) The following are appropriate nursing actions to prevent orthostatic hypotension, in a client who had been in bed for few days.
A.) Gradual change of position
B.) Ensure adequate fluid intake
C.) Slightly elevate the head of bed when lying
D.) AOTA

33.) The bedridden client develops slow, shallow respiration. He is likely to develop which of the following acid-base imbalances?
A.) Respiratory acidosis
B.) Respiratory alkalosis
C.) Metabolic acidosis
D.) Metabolic alkalosis

34.) Demineralization of bones among bedridden clients results to:
A.) Ankylosis
B.) Disuse osteoporosis
C.) Disuse atrophy
D.) Contractures

35.) To prevent plantar flexion in an unconscious client, which of the following protective devices may be used?
1. Foot board
2. Tronchanter roll
3. Hand roll
4. Boot splint

A.) 1 only
B.) 1 and 2
C.) 1 and 3
D.) 1 and 4

36.) Trochanter roll is used to prevent external rotation of the hip. The proper method of applying the device is:
A.) From waist to the ankle
B.) From the waist to the knees
C.) From the hips to the upper third of the thighs
D.) From the hip to the knees

37.) To transfer a client from the bed to the stretcher, the position of the stretcher should be:
A.) Parallel
B.) Right angle at the footpart
C.) Right angle at the headpart of the bed
D.) At the foot part of the bed

38.) Orthopneic position promotes maximum chest expansion of a dyspneic client. This is done by:
A.) Making the patient sit in bed or at the side of the bed, learning forward with arms supported on an overbed table
B.) Raising the head and trunk at 15-45 degrees
C.) Raising the head and trunk at 90 degree
D.) Raising the head and trunk at 45-60 degree with the knees flexed

39.) The type of exercise recommended for a client with joint pain due to arthritis:
A.) Active-exercise
B.) Active-assistive exercise
C.) Passive exercise
D.) Active-resistive exercise

40.) Isometric exercises involve:
A.) Change in muscle tension only
B.) Change in muscle tension length
C.) Use of weights and pulleys
D.) flexion and extension of a weak arm with sandbag tied on the forearm

41.) The primary cause of decubitus ulcer is:
A.) Impaired circulation
B.) Shearing force
C.) Friction
D.) Pressure

43.) The initial warning signal of impending decubitus ulcer is:
A.) Purplish skin
B.) Bluish skin
C.) Reddish skin
D.) Blanched skin

44.) The first stage of pressure ulcer formation is described as:
A.) Non blanchable erythema of intact skin
B.) Partial-thickness skin loss involving epidermis and or dermis
C.) Full thickness skin loss involving damage or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue
D.) Full-thickness skin loss tissue necrosis or damage to muscle

45.) The following are appropriate nursing measures to prevent pressure ulcer, EXCEPT:
A.) Provide high protein diet
B.) Keep the skin clean and dry
C.) Change position of bedridden client every 1-2 hours
D.) Massage bony prominences with soap during bed bath

46.) The following are correct nursing interventions when treating pressure sores, EXCEPT:
A.) Keep the head of bed flat
B.) Use pressure relieving devices like egg crate
C.) Clean and dress the ulcer using medical asepsis
D.) Apply cornstarch over the bedsheet

47.) The following are characteristics of pain EXCEPT:
A.) pain is a protective mechanism
B.) Pain is subjective
C.) pain, when localized involves only that particular part of the body
D.) Pain whether real or imagined is actually experienced by the client.

48.) Which of the following chemical agents may not cause pain?
A.) P-substance
B.) Histamine
C.) Endorphins
D.) Bradykinin

49.) The pain center that functions in the interpretation of pain is:
A.) Cerebral cortex
B.) Thalamus
C.) Skin
D.) Medulla oblongata

50.) The following are physiologic responses to pain EXCEPT:
A.) nausea and vomiting
B.) Splinting the abdomen
C.) Pallor
D.) Diaphoresis

51.) Which of the following is true statement about pain tolerance?
A.) It is fairly similar in all individuals
B.) It varies from individual to individual
C.) It is increased by anger, poor sleep
D.) It is increased by anger, poor sleep

52.) The pain that is perceived at an area other than the site injury is:
A.) Radiating
B.) Phantom pain
C.) referred pain
D.) Psychogenic pain

53.) Which of the following foods is rich in serotonin, and therefore may relieve pain?
A.) Apple
B.) Orange
C.) Avocado
D.) Banana

54.) Which of the following is the most common and effective nursing intervention to relieve pain?
A.) Slow, rhythmic breathing
B.) Meditation
C.) Acupuncture
D.) Biofeedback

55.) The primary center of wakefulness and regulates sleep is:
A.) Medulla oblongata
B.) Cerebellum
C.) Pons
D.) Reticular formation

56.) The following are characteristics of NREM stage of sleep EXCEPT:
A.) Vital functions are decreased
B.) PNS dominates
C.) SNS dominates
D.) Restores the body

57.) The following are appropriate nursing measures to promote sleep EXCEPT:
A.) High-protein diet
B.) Avoid caffeine and alcohol before sleep
C.) Exercise at least 2 hours before sleep
D.) Advise to take afternoon nap for 60-90 mins

58.) The following are nursing considerations when nursing action to relieve pain
A.) Administration of analgesic should be the priority nursing action to relieve pain
B.) Give analgesic at the start of pain
C.) Give analgesic 15-30 mins before a pain provoking procedure
D.) Try general nursing measures first before resorting to medications

59.) Which of the following beverages may induce sleep?
A.) Tea
B.) Coffee
C.) Milk
D.) Fruit juice

60.) Which of the following chemical substances may relieve pain and promote sleep?
A.) Trytophan
B.) Histamine
C.) Prostaglandin
D.) Bradykinin

61.) Uncontrollable falling into sleep is:
A.) Soliloquy
B.) Somnambulism
C.) Bruxism
D.) Narcolepsy

Answers and Rationale

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Fundamentals of Nursing Drill 5

1. Which one of the following is NOT a function of the Upper airway?

A. For clearance mechanism such as coughing
B. Transport gases to the lower airways
C. Warming, Filtration and Humidification of inspired air
D. Protect the lower airway from foreign mater

2. It is the hair the lines the vestibule which function as a filtering mechanism for foreign objects

A. Cilia
B. Nares
C. Carina
D. Vibrissae

3. This is the paranasal sinus found between the eyes and the nose that extends backward into the skull

A. Ehtmoid
B. Sphenoid
C. Maxillary
D. Frontal

4. Which paranasal sinus is found over the eyebrow?

A. Ehtmoid
B. Sphenoid
C. Maxillary
D. Frontal

5. Gene wants to change her surname to something shorter, The court denied her request which depresses her and find herself binge eating. She accidentally aspirate a large piece of nut and it passes the carina. Probabilty wise, Where will the nut go?

A. Right main stem bronchus
B. Left main stem bronchus
C. Be dislodged in between the carina
D. Be blocked by the closed epiglottis

6. Which cell secretes mucus that help protect the lungs by trapping debris in the respiratory tract?

A. Type I pneumocytes
B. Type II pneumocytes
C. Goblet cells
D. Adipose cells

7. How many lobes are there in the RIGHT LUNG?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

8. The presence of the liver causes which anatomical difference of the Kidneys and the Lungs?

A. Left kidney slightly lower, Left lung slightly shorter
B. Left kidney slightly higher, Left lung slightly shorter
C. Right kidney lower, Right lung shorter
D. Right kidney higher, Right lung shorter

9. Surfactant is produced by what cells in the alveoli?

A. Type I pneumocytes
B. Type II pneumocytes
C. Goblet cells
D. Adipose cells

10. The normal L:S Ratio to consider the newborn baby viable is

A. 1:2
B. 2:1
C. 3:1
D. 1:3

11. Refers to the extra air that can be inhaled beyond the normal tidal volume

A. Inspiratory reserve volume
B. Expiratory reserve volume
C. Functional residual capacity
D. Residual volume

12. This is the amount of air remained in the lungs after a forceful expiration

A. Inspiratory reserve volume
B. Expiratory reserve volume
C. Functional residual capacity
D. Residual volume



13. Casssandra, A 22 year old grade Agnostic, Asked you, how many spikes of bones are there in my ribs? Your best response is which of the following?

A. We have 13 pairs of ribs Cassandra
B. We have 12 pairs of ribs Cassandra
C. Humans have 16 pairs of ribs, and that was noted by Vesalius in 1543
D. Humans have 8 pairs of ribs. 4 of which are floating

14. Which of the following is considered as the main muscle of respiration?

A. Lungs
B. Intercostal Muscles
C. Diaphragm
D. Pectoralis major

15. Cassandra asked you : How many air is there in the oxygen and how many does human requires? Which of the following is the best response :

A. God is good, Man requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air
B. Man requires 16% of oxygen and we have 35% available in our air
C. Man requires 10% of oxygen and we have 50% available in our air
D. Human requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air

16. Which of the following is TRUE about Expiration?

A. A passive process
B. The length of which is half of the length of Inspiration
C. Stridor is commonly heard during expiration
D. Requires energy to be carried out

17. Which of the following is TRUE in postural drainage?

A. Patient assumes position for 10 to 15 minutes
B. Should last only for 60 minutes
C. Done best P.C
D. An independent nursing action

18. All but one of the following is a purpose of steam inhalation

A. Mucolytic
B. Warm and humidify air
C. Administer medications
D. Promote bronchoconstriction

19. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in steam inhalation?

A. It is a dependent nursing action
B. Spout is put 12-18 inches away from the nose
C. Render steam inhalation for atleast 60 minutes
D. Cover the client’s eye with wash cloth to prevent irritation

20. When should a nurse suction a client?

A. As desired
B. As needed
C. Every 1 hour
D. Every 4 hours

21. Ernest Arnold Hamilton, a 60 year old American client was mobbed by teen gangsters near New york, Cubao. He was rushed to John John Hopio Medical Center and was Unconscious. You are his nurse and you are to suction his secretions. In which position should you place Mr. Hamilton?

A. High fowlers
B. Semi fowlers
C. Prone
D. Side lying

22. You are about to set the suction pressure to be used to Mr. Hamilton. You are using a Wall unit suction machine. How much pressure should you set the valve before suctioning Mr. Hamilton?

A. 50-95 mmHg
B. 200-350 mmHg
C. 100-120 mmHg
D. 10-15 mmHg

23. The wall unit is not functioning; You then try to use the portable suction equipment available. How much pressure of suction equipment is needed to prevent trauma to mucus membrane and air ways in case of portable suction units?

A. 2-5 mmHg
B. 5-10 mmHg
C. 10-15 mmHg
D. 15-25 mmHg

24. There are four catheter sizes available for use, which one of these should you use for Mr. Hamilton?

A. Fr. 18
B. Fr. 12
C. Fr. 10
D. Fr, 5

25. Which of the following, if done by the nurse, indicates incompetence during suctioning an unconscious client?

A. Measure the length of the suction catheter to be inserted by measuring from the tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid process
B. Use KY Jelly if suctioning nasopharyngeal secretion
C. The maximum time of suctioning should not exceed 15 seconds
D. Allow 30 seconds interval between suctioning

26. Which of the following is the initial sign of hypoxemia in an adult client?

1. Tachypnea
2. Tachycardia
3. Cyanosis
4. Pallor
5. Irritability
6. Flaring of Nares

A. 1,2
B. 2,5
C. 2,6
D. 3,4

27. Which method of oxygenation least likely produces anxiety and apprehension?

A. Nasal Cannula
B. Simple Face mask
C. Non Rebreather mask
D. Partial Rebreather mask

28. Which of the following oxygen delivery method can deliver 100% Oxygen at 15 LPM?

A. Nasal Cannula
B. Simple Face mask
C. Non Rebreather mask
D. Partial Rebreather mask

29. Which of the following is not true about OXYGEN?

A. Oxygen is odorless, tasteless and colorless gas.
B. Oxygen can irritate mucus membrane
C. Oxygen supports combustion
D. Excessive oxygen administration results in respiratory acidosis

30. Roberto San Andres, A new nurse in the hospital is about to administer oxygen on patient with Respiratory distress. As his senior nurse, you should intervene if Roberto will:

A. Uses venture mask in oxygen administration
B. Put a non rebreather mask in the patient before opening the oxygen source
C. Use a partial rebreather mask to deliver oxygen
D. Check for the doctor’s order for Oxygen administration

31. Which of the following will alert the nurse as an early sign of hypoxia?

A. Client is tired and dyspneic
B. The client is coughing out blood
C. The client’s heart rate is 50 BPM
D. Client is frequently turning from side to side

32. Miguelito de balboa, An OFW presents at the admission with an A:P Diameter ratio of 2:1, Which of the following associated finding should the nurse expect?

A. Pancytopenia
B. Anemia
C. Fingers are Club-like
D. Hematocrit of client is decreased

33. The best method of oxygen administration for client with COPD uses:

A. Cannula
B. Simple Face mask
C. Non rebreather mask
D. Venturi mask

34. Mang dagul, a 50 year old chronic smoker was brought to the E.R because of difficulty in breathing. Pleural effusion was the diagnosis and CTT was ordered. What does C.T.T Stands for?

A. Chest tube thoracotomy
B. Chest tube thoracostomy
C. Closed tube thoracotomy
D. Closed tube thoracostmy

35. Where will the CTT be inserted if we are to drain fluids accumulated in Mang dagul’s pleura?

A. 2nd ICS
B. 4th ICS
C. 5th ICS
D. 8th ICS

36. There is a continuous bubbling in the water sealed drainage system with suction. And oscillation is observed. As a nurse, what should you do?

A. Consider this as normal findings
B. Notify the physician
C. Check for tube leak
D. Prepare a petrolatum gauze dressing

37. Which of the following is true about nutrition?

A. It is the process in which food are broken down, for the body to use in growth and development
B. It is a process in which digested proteins, fats, minerals, vitamins and carbohydrates are transported into the circulation
C. It is a chemical process that occurs in the cell that allows for energy production, energy use, growth and tissue repair
D. It is the study of nutrients and the process in which they are use by the body

38. The majority of the digestion processes take place in the

A. Mouth
B. Small intestine
C. Large intestine
D. Stomach

39. All of the following is true about digestion that occurs in the Mouth except

A. It is where the digestion process starts
B. Mechanical digestion is brought about by mastication
C. The action of ptyalin or the salivary tyrpsin breaks down starches into maltose
D. Deglutition occurs after food is broken down into small pieces and well mixed with saliva

40. Which of the following foods lowers the cardiac sphincter pressure?

A. Roast beef, Steamed cauliflower and Rice
B. Orange juice, Non fat milk, Dry crackers
C. Decaffeinated coffee, Sky flakes crackers, Suman
D. Coffee with coffee mate, Bacon and Egg

41. Where does the digestion of carbohydrates start?

A. Mouth
B. Esophagus
C. Small intestine
D. Stomach

42. Protein and Fat digestion begins where?

A. Mouth
B. Esophagus
C. Small intestine
D. Stomach

43. All but one is true about digestion that occurs in the Stomach

A. Carbohydrates are the fastest to be digested, in about an hour
B. Fat is the slowest to be digested, in about 5 hours
C. HCl inhibits absorption of Calcium in the gastric mucosa
D. HCl converts pepsinogen to pepsin, which starts the complex process of protein digestion

44. Which of the following is NOT an enzyme secreted by the small intestine?

A. Sucrase
B. Enterokinase
C. Amylase
D. Enterokinase

45. The hormone secreted by the Small intestine that stimulates the production of pancreatic juice which primarily aids in buffering the acidic bolus passed by the Stomach

A. Enterogastrone
B. Cholecystokinin
C. Pancreozymin
D. Enterokinase

46. When the duodenal enzyme sucrase acts on SUCROSE, which 2 monosaccharides are formed?

A. Galactose + Galactose
B. Glucose + Fructose
C. Glucose + Galactose
D. Fructose + Fructose

47. This is the enzyme secreted by the pancrease that completes the protein digestion

A. Trypsin
B. Enterokinase
C. Enterogastrone
D. Amylase

48. The end product of protein digestion or the “Building blocks of Protein” is what we call

A. Nucleotides
B. Fatty acids
C. Glucose
D. Amino Acids

49. Enzyme secreted by the small intestine after it detects a bolus of fatty food. This will contract the gallbladder to secrete bile and relax the sphincter of Oddi to aid in the emulsification of fats and its digestion.

A. Lipase
B. Amylase
C. Cholecystokinin
D. Pancreozymin

50. Which of the following is not true about the Large Intestine?

A. It absorbs around 1 L of water making the feces around 75% water and 25% solid
B. The stool formed in the transverse colon is not yet well formed
C. It is a sterile body cavity
D. It is called large intestine because it is longer than the small intestine

51. This is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg water to 1 degree Celsius

A. Calorie
B. Joules
C. Metabolism
D. Basal metabolic rate

52. Assuming a cup of rice provides 50 grams of carbohydrates. How many calories are there in that cup of rice?

A. 150 calories
B. 200 calories
C. 250 calories
D. 400 calories

53. An average adult filipino requires how many calories in a day?

A. 1,000 calories
B. 1,500 calories
C. 2,000 calories
D. 2,500 calories

54. Which of the following is true about an individual’s caloric needs?

A. All individual have the same caloric needs
B. Females in general have higher BMR and therefore, require more calories
C. During cold weather, people need more calories due to increase BMR
D. Dinner should be the heaviest meal of the day

55. Among the following people, who requires the greatest caloric intake?

A. An individual in a long state of gluconeogenesis
B. An individual in a long state of glycogenolysis
C. A pregnant individual
D. An adolescent with a BMI of 25

56. Which nutrient deficiency is associated with the development of Pellagra, Dermatitis and Diarrhea?

A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B6

57. Which Vitamin is not given in conjunction with the intake of LEVODOPA in cases of Parkinson’s Disease due to the fact that levodopa increases its level in the body?

A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B6

58. A vitamin taken in conjunction with ISONIAZID to prevent peripheral neuritis

A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B6

59. The inflammation of the Lips, Palate and Tongue is associated in the deficiency of this vitamin

A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B6

60. Beri beri is caused by the deficiency of which Vitamin?

A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin C

61. Which of the following is the best source of Vitamin E?

A. Green leafy vegetables
B. Vegetable oil
C. Fortified Milk
D. Fish liver oil

62. Among the following foods, which food should you emphasize giving on an Alcoholic client?

A. Pork liver and organ meats, Pork
B. Red meat, Eggs and Dairy products
C. Green leafy vegetables, Yellow vegetables, Cantaloupe and Dairy products
D. Chicken, Peanuts, Bananas, Wheat germs and yeasts

63. Which food group should you emphasize giving on a pregnant mother in first trimester to prevent neural tube defects?

A. Broccoli, Guava, Citrus fruits, Tomatoes
B. Butter, Sardines, Tuna, Salmon, Egg yolk
C. Wheat germ, Vegetable Oil, soybeans, corn, peanuts
D. Organ meats, Green leafy vegetables, Liver, Eggs

64. A client taking Coumadin is to be educated on his diet. As a nurse, which of the following food should you instruct the client to avoid?

A. Spinach, Green leafy vegetables, Cabbage, Liver
B. Salmon, Sardines, Tuna
C. Butter, Egg yolk, breakfast cereals
D. Banana, Yeast, Wheat germ, Chicken

65. Vitamin E plus this mineral works as one of the best anti oxidant in the body according to the latest research. They are combined with 5 Alpha reductase inhibitor to reduce the risk of acquiring prostate cancer

A. Zinc
B. Iron
C. Selenium
D. Vanadium

66. Incident of prostate cancer is found to have been reduced on a population exposed in tolerable amount of sunlight. Which vitamin is associated with this phenomenon?

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

67. Micronutrients are those nutrients needed by the body in a very minute amount. Which of the following vitamin is considered as a MICRONUTRIENT

A. Phosphorous
B. Iron
C. Calcium
D. Sodium

68. Deficiency of this mineral results in tetany, osteomalacia, osteoporosis and rickets.

A. Vitamin D
B. Iron
C. Calcium
D. Sodium

69. Among the following foods, which has the highest amount of potassium per area of their meat?

A. Cantaloupe
B. Avocado
C. Raisin
D. Banana

70. A client has HEMOSIDEROSIS. Which of the following drug would you expect to be given to the client?

A. Acetazolamide
B. Deferoxamine
C. Calcium EDTA
D. Activated charcoal

71. Which of the following provides the richest source of Iron per area of their meat?

A. Pork meat
B. Lean read meat
C. Pork liver
D. Green mongo

72. Which of the following is considered the best indicator of nutritional status of an individual?

A. Height
B. Weight
C. Arm muscle circumference
D. BMI

73. Jose Miguel, a 50 year old business man is 6’0 Tall and weights 179 lbs. As a nurse, you know that Jose Miguel is :

A. Overweight
B. Underweight
C. Normal
D. Obese

74. Jose Miguel is a little bit nauseous. Among the following beverages, Which could help relieve JM’s nausea?

A. Coke
B. Sprite
C. Mirinda
D. Orange Juice or Lemon Juice

75. Which of the following is the first sign of dehydration?

A. Tachycardia
B. Restlessness
C. Thirst
D. Poor skin turgor

76. What Specific gravity lab result is compatible with a dehydrated client?

A. 1.007
B. 1.020
C. 1.039
D. 1.029

77. Which hematocrit value is expected in a dehydrated male client?

A. 67%
B. 50%
C. 36%
D. 45%

78. Which of the following statement by a client with prolonged vomiting indicates the initial onset of hypokalemia?

A. My arm feels so weak
B. I felt my heart beat just right now
C. My face muscle is twitching
D. Nurse, help! My legs are cramping

79. Which of the following is not an anti-emetic?

A. Marinol
B. Dramamine
C. Benadryl
D. Alevaire

80. Which is not a clear liquid diet?

A. Hard candy
B. Gelatin
C. Coffee with Coffee mate
D. Bouillon

81. Which of the following is included in a full liquid diet?

A. Popsicles
B. Pureed vegetable meat
C. Pineapple juice with pulps
D. Mashed potato

82. Which food is included in a BLAND DIET?

A. Steamed broccoli
B. Creamed potato
C. Spinach in garlic
D. Sweet potato

83. Which of the following if done by the nurse, is correct during NGT Insertion?

A. Use an oil based lubricant
B. Measure the amount of the tube to be inserted from the Tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid process
C. Soak the NGT in a basin of ice water to facilitate easy insertion
D. Check the placement of the tube by introducing 10 cc of sterile water and auscultating for bubbling sound

84. Which of the following is the BEST method in assessing for the correct placement of the NGT?

A. X-Ray
B. Immerse tip of the tube in water to check for bubbles produced
C. Aspirating gastric content to check if the content is acidic
D. Instilling air in the NGT and listening for a gurgling sound at the epigastric area

85. A terminally ill cancer patient is scheduled for an NGT feeding today. How should you position the patient?

A. Semi fowlers in bed
B. Bring the client into a chair
C. Slightly elevated right side lying position
D. Supine in bed

86. A client is scheduled for NGT Feeding. Checking the residual volume, you determined that he has 40 cc residual from the last feeding. You reinstill the 40 cc of residual volume and added the 250 cc of feeding ordered by the doctor. You then instill 60 cc of water to clear the lumen and the tube. How much will you put in the client’s chart as input?

A. 250 cc
B. 290 cc
C. 350 cc
D. 310 cc

87. Which of the following if done by a nurse indicates deviation from the standards of NGT feeding?

A. Do not give the feeding and notify the doctor of residual of the last feeding is greater than or equal to 50 ml
B. Height of the feeding should be 12 inches about the tube point of insertion to allow slow introduction of feeding
C. Ask the client to position in supine position immediately after feeding to prevent dumping syndrome
D. Clamp the NGT before all of the water is instilled to prevent air entry in the stomach

88. What is the most common problem in TUBE FEEDING?

A. Diarrhea
B. Infection
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Vomiting

89. Which of the following is TRUE in colostomy feeding?

A. Hold the syringe 18 inches above the stoma and administer the feeding slowly
B. Pour 30 ml of water before and after feeding administration
C. Insert the ostomy feeding tube 1 inch towards the stoma
D. A Pink stoma means that circulation towards the stoma is all well

90. A client with TPN suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, weakness and diaphoresis. The client said “I feel weak” You saw that his TPN is already empty and another TPN is scheduled to replace the previous one but its provision is already 3 hours late. Which of the following is the probable complication being experienced by the client?

A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Infection
D. Fluid overload

91. To assess the adequacy of food intake, which of the following assessment parameters is best used?

A. Food likes and dislikes
B. Regularity of meal times
C. 3 day diet recall
D. Eating style and habits

92. The vomiting center is found in the

A. Medulla Oblongata
B. Pons
C. Hypothalamus
D. Cerebellum

93. The most threatening complication of vomiting in client’s with stroke is

A. Aspiration
B. Dehydration
C. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
D. Malnutrition

94. Which among this food is the richest source of Iron?

A. Ampalaya
B. Broccoli
C. Mongo
D. Malunggay leaves

95. Which of the following is a good source of Vitamin A?

A. Egg yolk
B. Liver
C. Fish
D. Peanuts

96. The most important nursing action before gastrostomy feeding is

A. Check V/S
B. Assess for patency of the tube
C. Measure residual feeding
D. Check the placement of the tube

97. The primary advantage of gastrostomy feeding is

A. Ensures adequate nutrition
B. It prevents aspiration
C. Maintains Gastro esophageal sphincter integrity
D. Minimizes fluid-electrolyte imbalance

98. What is the BMI Of Budek, weighing 120 lbs and has a height of 5 feet 7 inches.

A. 20
B. 19
C. 15
D. 25

99. Which finding is consistent with PERNICIOUS ANEMIA?

A. Strawberry tongue
B. Currant Jelly stool
C. Beefy red tongue
D. Pale [ HYPOCHROMIC ] RBC

100. The nurse is browsing the chart of the patient and notes a normal serum lipase level. Which of the following is a normal serum lipase value?

A. 10 U/L
B. 100 U/L
C. 200 U/L
D. 350 U/L

Answers and Rationale

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Fundamentals of Nursing Drill 4

1. She is the first one to coin the term “NURSING PROCESS” She introduced 3 steps of nursing process which are Observation, Ministration and Validation.

A. Nightingale
B. Johnson
C. Rogers
D. Hall

2. The American Nurses association formulated an innovation of the Nursing process. Today, how many distinct steps are there in the nursing process?

A. APIE – 4
B. ADPIE – 5
C. ADOPIE – 6
D. ADOPIER – 7

3. They are the first one to suggest a 4 step nursing process which are : APIE , or assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.

1. Yura
2. Walsh
3. Roy
4. Knowles

A. 1,2
B. 1,3
C. 3,4
D. 2,3

4. Which characteristic of nursing process is responsible for proper utilization of human resources, time and cost resources?

A. Organized and Systematic
B. Humanistic
C. Efficient
D. Effective

5. Which characteristic of nursing process addresses the INDIVIDUALIZED care a client must receive?
A. Organized and Systematic
B. Humanistic
C. Efficient
D. Effective

6. A characteristic of the nursing process that is essential to promote client satisfaction and progress. The care should also be relevant with the client’s needs.

A. Organized and Systematic
B. Humanistic
C. Efficient
D. Effective

7. Rhina, who has Menieres disease, said that her environment is moving. Which of the following is a valid assessment?

1. Rhina is giving an objective data
2. Rhina is giving a subjective data
3. The source of the data is primary
4. The source of the data is secondary

A. 1,3
B. 2,3
C. 2.4
D. 1,4

8. Nurse Angela, observe Joel who is very apprehensive over the impending operation. The client is experiencing dyspnea, diaphoresis and asks lots of questions. Angela made a diagnosis of ANXIETY R/T INTRUSIVE PROCEDURE. This is what type of Nursing Diagnosis?

A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk

9. Nurse Angela diagnosed Mrs. Delgado, who have undergone a BKA. Her diagnosis is SELF ESTEEM DISTURBANCE R/T CHANGE IN BODY IMAGE. Although the client has not yet seen her lost leg, Angela already anticipated the diagnosis. This is what type of Diagnosis?

A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk

10. Nurse Angela is about to make a diagnosis but very unsure because the S/S the client is experiencing is not specific with her diagnosis of POWERLESSNESS R/T DIFFICULTY ACCEPTING LOSS OF LOVED ONE. She then focus on gathering data to refute or prove her diagnosis but her plans and interventions are already ongoing for the diagnosis. Which type of Diagnosis is this?

A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk
11. Nurse Angela knew that Stephen Lee Mu Chin, has just undergone an operation with an incision near the diaphragm. She knew that this will contribute to some complications later on. She then should develop what type of Nursing diagnosis?

A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk

12. Which of the following Nursing diagnosis is INCORRECT?

A. Fluid volume deficit R/T Diarrhea
B. High risk for injury R/T Absence of side rails
C. Possible ineffective coping R/T Loss of loved one
D. Self esteem disturbance R/T Effects of surgical removal of the leg

13. Among the following statements, which should be given the HIGHEST priority?

A. Client is in extreme pain
B. Client’s blood pressure is 60/40
C. Client’s temperature is 40 deg. Centigrade
D. Client is cyanotic

14. Which of the following need is given a higher priority among others?

A. The client has attempted suicide and safety precaution is needed
B. The client has disturbance in his body image because of the recent operation
C. The client is depressed because her boyfriend left her all alone
D. The client is thirsty and dehydrated

15. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to Client Goals?

A. They are specific, measurable, attainable and time bounded
B. They are general and broadly stated
C. They should answer for WHO, WHAT ACTIONS, WHAT CIRCUMSTANCES, HOW WELL and WHEN.
D. Example is : After discharge planning, Client demonstrated the proper psychomotor skills for insulin injection.

16. Which of the following is a NOT a correct statement of an Outcome criteria?

A. Ambulates 30 feet with a cane before discharge
B. Discusses fears and concerns regarding the surgical procedure
C. Demonstrates proper coughing and breathing technique after a teaching session
D. Reestablishes a normal pattern of elimination

17. Which of the following is a OBJECTIVE data?

A. Dizziness
B. Chest pain
C. Anxiety
D. Blue nails

18. A patient’s chart is what type of data source?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Can be A and B

19. All of the following are characteristic of the Nursing process except

A. Dynamic
B. Cyclical
C. Universal
D. Intrapersonal

20. Which of the following is true about the NURSING CARE PLAN?

A. It is nursing centered
B. Rationales are supported by interventions
C. Verbal
D. Atleast 2 goals are needed for every nursing diagnosis

21. A framework for health assessment that evaluates the effects of stressors to the mind, body and environment in relation with the ability of the client to perform ADL.

A. Functional health framework
B. Head to toe framework
C. Body system framework
D. Cephalocaudal framework

22. Client has undergone Upper GI and Lower GI series. Which type of health assessment framework is used in this situation?

A. Functional health framework
B. Head to toe framework
C. Body system framework
D. Cephalocaudal framework

23. Which of the following statement is true regarding temperature?

A. Oral temperature is more accurate than rectal temperature
B. The bulb used in Rectal temperature reading is pear shaped or round
C. The older the person, the higher his BMR
D. When the client is swimming, BMR Decreases

24. A type of heat loss that occurs when the heat is dissipated by air current

A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Radiation
D. Evaporation

25. Which of the following is TRUE about temperature?

A. The highest temperature usually occurs later in a day, around 8 P.M to 12 M.N
B. The lowest temperature is usually in the Afternoon, Around 12 P.M
C. Thyroxin decreases body temperature
D. Elderly people are risk for hyperthermia due to the absence of fats, Decreased thermoregulatory control and sedentary lifestyle.

26. Hyperpyrexia is a condition in which the temperature is greater than

A. 40 degree Celsius
B. 39 degree Celsius
C. 100 degree Fahrenheit
D. 105.8 degree Fahrenheit

27. Tympanic temperature is taken from John, A client who was brought recently into the ER due to frequent barking cough. The temperature reads 37.9 Degrees Celsius. As a nurse, you conclude that this temperature is

A. High
B. Low
C. At the low end of the normal range
D. At the high end of the normal range

28. John has a fever of 38.5 Deg. Celsius. It surges at around 40 Degrees and go back to 38.5 degrees 6 times today in a typical pattern. What kind of fever is John having?

A. Relapsing
B. Intermittent
C. Remittent
D. Constant

29. John has a fever of 39.5 degrees 2 days ago, But yesterday, he has a normal temperature of 36.5 degrees. Today, his temperature surges to 40 degrees. What type of fever is John having?

A. Relapsing
B. Intermittent
C. Remittent
D. Constant

30. John’s temperature 10 hours ago is a normal 36.5 degrees. 4 hours ago, He has a fever with a temperature of 38.9 Degrees. Right now, his temperature is back to normal. Which of the following best describe the fever john is having?

A. Relapsing
B. Intermittent
C. Remittent
D. Constant


31. The characteristic fever in Dengue Virus is characterized as:

A. Tricyclic
B. Bicyclic
C. Biphasic
D. Triphasic

32. When John has been given paracetamol, his fever was brought down dramatically from 40 degrees Celsius to 36.7 degrees in a matter of 10 minutes. The nurse would assess this event as:

A. The goal of reducing john’s fever has been met with full satisfaction of the outcome criteria
B. The desired goal has been partially met
C. The goal is not completely met
D. The goal has been met but not with the desired outcome criteria

33. What can you expect from Marianne, who is currently at the ONSET stage of fever?

A. Hot, flushed skin
B. Increase thirst
C. Convulsion
D. Pale,cold skin

34. Marianne is now at the Defervescence stage of the fever, which of the following is expected?

A. Delirium
B. Goose flesh
C. Cyanotic nail beds
D. Sweating

35. Considered as the most accessible and convenient method for temperature taking

A. Oral
B. Rectal
C. Tympanic
D. Axillary

36. Considered as Safest and most non invasive method of temperature taking

A. Oral
B. Rectal
C. Tympanic
D. Axillary

37. Which of the following is NOT a contraindication in taking ORAL temperature?

A. Quadriplegic
B. Presence of NGT
C. Dyspnea
D. Nausea and Vomitting

38. Which of the following is a contraindication in taking RECTAL temperature?

A. Unconscious
B. Neutropenic
C. NPO
D. Very young children

39. How long should the Rectal Thermometer be inserted to the clients anus?

A. 1 to 2 inches
B. .5 to 1.5 inches
C. 3 to 5 inches
D. 2 to 3 inches

40. In cleaning the thermometer after use, The direction of the cleaning to follow Medical Asepsis is :
A. From bulb to stem
B. From stem to bulb
C. From stem to stem
D. From bulb to bulb

41. How long should the thermometer stay in the Client’s Axilla?

A. 3 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 7 minutes
D. 10 minutes

42. Which of the following statement is TRUE about pulse?

A. Young person have higher pulse than older persons
B. Males have higher pulse rate than females after puberty
C. Digitalis has a positive chronotropic effect
D. In lying position, Pulse rate is higher

43. The following are correct actions when taking radial pulse except:

A. Put the palms downward
B. Use the thumb to palpate the artery
C. Use two or three fingers to palpate the pulse at the inner wrist
D. Assess the pulse rate, rhythm, volume and bilateral quality

44. The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure is termed as

A. Apical rate
B. Cardiac rate
C. Pulse deficit
D. Pulse pressure

45. Which of the following completely describes PULSUS PARADOXICUS?

A. A greater-than-normal increase in systolic blood pressure with inspiration
B. A greater-than-normal decrease in systolic blood pressure with inspiration
C. Pulse is paradoxically low when client is in standing position and high when supine.
D. Pulse is paradoxically high when client is in standing position and low when supine.

46. Which of the following is TRUE about respiration?

A. I:E 2:1
B. I:E : 4:3
C I:E 1:1
D. I:E 1:2

47. Contains the pneumotaxic and the apneutic centers

A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Carotid bodies
D. Aortic bodies

48. Which of the following is responsible for deep and prolonged inspiration

A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Carotid bodies
D. Aortic bodies

49. Which of the following is responsible for the rhythm and quality of breathing?

A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Carotid bodies
D. Aortic bodies

50. The primary respiratory center

A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Carotid bodies
D. Aortic bodies

51. Which of the following is TRUE about the mechanism of action of the Aortic and Carotid bodies?

A. If the BP is elevated, the RR increases
B. If the BP is elevated, the RR decreases
C. Elevated BP leads to Metabolic alkalosis
D. Low BP leads to Metabolic acidosis

52. All of the following factors correctly influence respiration except one. Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Hydrocodone decreases RR
B. Stress increases RR
C. Increase temperature of the environment, Increase RR
D. Increase altitude, Increase RR

53. When does the heart receives blood from the coronary artery?

A. Systole
B. Diastole
C. When the valves opens
D. When the valves closes

54. Which of the following is more life threatening?

A. BP = 180/100
B. BP = 160/120
C. BP = 90/60
D. BP = 80/50

55. Refers to the pressure when the ventricles are at rest

A. Diastole
B. Systole
C. Preload
D. Pulse pressure

56. Which of the following is TRUE about the blood pressure determinants?

A. Hypervolemia lowers BP
B. Hypervolemia increases GFR
C. HCT of 70% might decrease or increase BP
D. Epinephrine decreases BP

57. Which of the following do not correctly correlates the increase BP of Ms. Aida, a 70 year old diabetic?

A. Females, after the age 65 tends to have lower BP than males
B. Disease process like Diabetes increase BP
C. BP is highest in the morning, and lowest during the night
D. Africans, have a greater risk of hypertension than Caucasian and Asians.

58. How many minutes are allowed to pass if the client had engaged in strenuous activities, smoked or ingested caffeine before taking his/her BP?

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 30

59. Too narrow cuff will cause what change in the Client’s BP?

A. True high reading
B. True low reading
C. False high reading
D. False low reading

60. Which is a preferable arm for BP taking?

A. An arm with the most contraptions
B. The left arm of the client with a CVA affecting the right brain
C. The right arm
D. The left arm

61. Which of the following is INCORRECT in assessing client’s BP?

A. Read the mercury at the upper meniscus, preferably at the eye level to prevent error of parallax
B. Inflate and deflate slowly, 2-3 mmHg at a time
C. The sound heard during taking BP is known as KOROTKOFF sound
D. If the BP is taken on the left leg using the popliteal artery pressure, a BP of 160/80 is normal.

62. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of the ERROR OF PARALLAX

A. If the eye level is higher than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a false high reading
B. If the eye level is higher than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a false low reading
C. If the eye level is lower than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a false low reading
D. If the eye level is equal to that of the level of the upper meniscus, the reading is accurate

63. How many minute/s is/are allowed to pass before making a re-reading after the first one?

A. 1
B. 5
C. 15
D. 30

64. Which of the following is TRUE about the auscultation of blood pressure?

A. Pulse + 4 is considered as FULL
B. The bell of the stethoscope is use in auscultating BP
C. Sound produced by BP is considered as HIGH frequency sound
D. Pulse +1 is considered as NORMAL

65. In assessing the abdomen, Which of the following is the correct sequence of the physical assessment?

A. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
B. Palpation, Auscultation, Percussion, Inspection
C. Inspection, Palpation, Auscultation, Percussion
D. Inspection, Auscultation, Palpation, Percussion

66. The sequence in examining the quadrants of the abdomen is:

A. RUQ,RLQ,LUQ,LLQ
B. RLQ,RUQ,LLQ,LUQ
C. RUQ,RLQ,LLQ,LUQ
D. RLQ,RUQ,LUQ,LLQ

67. In inspecting the abdomen, which of the following is NOT DONE?

A. Ask the client to void first
B. Knees and legs are straighten to relax the abdomen
C. The best position in assessing the abdomen is Dorsal recumbent
D. The knees and legs are externally rotated

68. Dr. Fabian De Las Santas, is about to conduct an ophthalmoscope examination. Which of the following, if done by a nurse, is a Correct preparation before the procedure?

A. Provide the necessary draping to ensure privacy
B. Open the windows, curtains and light to allow better illumination
C. Pour warm water over the ophthalmoscope to ensure comfort
D. Darken the room to provide better illumination

69. If the client is female, and the doctor is a male and the patient is about to undergo a vaginal and cervical examination, why is it necessary to have a female nurse in attendance?

A. To ensure that the doctor performs the procedure safely
B. To assist the doctor
C. To assess the client’s response to examination
D. To ensure that the procedure is done in an ethical manner

70. In palpating the client’s breast, Which of the following position is necessary for the patient to assume before the start of the procedure?

A. Supine
B. Dorsal recumbent
C. Sitting
D. Lithotomy

71. When is the best time to collect urine specimen for routine urinalysis and C/S?

A. Early morning
B. Later afternoon
C. Midnight
D. Before breakfast

72. Which of the following is among an ideal way of collecting a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity?

A. Use a clean container
B. Discard the first flow of urine to ensure that the urine is not contaminated
C. Collect around 30-50 ml of urine
D. Add preservatives, refrigerate the specimen or add ice according to the agency’s protocol

73. In a 24 hour urine specimen started Friday, 9:00 A.M, which of the following if done by a Nurse indicate a NEED for further procedural debriefing?

A. The nurse ask the client to urinate at 9:00 A.M, Friday and she included the urine in the 24 hour urine specimen
B. The nurse discards the Friday 9:00 A M urine of the client
C. The nurse included the Saturday 9:00 A.M urine of the client to the specimen collection
D. The nurse added preservatives as per protocol and refrigerates the specimen

74. This specimen is required to assess glucose levels and for the presence of albumin the the urine

A. Midstream clean catch urine
B. 24 hours urine collection
C. Postprandial urine collection
D. Second voided urine

75. When should the client test his blood sugar levels for greater accuracy?

A. During meals
B. In between meals
C. Before meals
D. 2 Hours after meals

76. In collecting a urine from a catheterized patient, Which of the following statement indicates an accurate performance of the procedure?

A. Clamp above the port for 30 to 60 minutes before drawing the urine from the port
B. Clamp below the port for 30 to 60 minutes before drawing the urine from the port
C. Clamp above the port for 5 to 10 minutes before drawing the urine from the port
D. Clamp below the port for 5 to 10 minutes before drawing the urine from the port

77. A community health nurse should be resourceful and meet the needs of the client. A villager ask him, Can you test my urine for glucose? Which of the following technique allows the nurse to test a client’s urine for glucose without the need for intricate instruments.

A. Acetic Acid test
B. Nitrazine paper test
C. Benedict’s test
D. Litmus paper test

78. A community health nurse is assessing client’s urine using the Acetic Acid solution. Which of the following, if done by a nurse, indicates lack of correct knowledge with the procedure?

A. The nurse added the Urine as the 2/3 part of the solution
B. The nurse heats the test tube after adding 1/3 part acetic acid
C. The nurse heats the test tube after adding 2/3 part of Urine
D. The nurse determines abnormal result if she noticed that the test tube becomes cloudy

79. Which of the following is incorrect with regards to proper urine testing using Benedict’s Solution?

A. Heat around 5ml of Benedict’s solution together with the urine in a test tube
B. Add 8 to 10 drops of urine
C. Heat the Benedict’s solution without the urine to check if the solution is contaminated
D. If the color remains BLUE, the result is POSITIVE

80. +++ Positive result after Benedicts test is depicted by what color?

A. Blue
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Orange

81. Clinitest is used in testing the urine of a client for glucose. Which of the following, If committed by a nurse indicates error?

A. Specimen is collected after meals
B. The nurse puts 1 clinitest tablet into a test tube
C. She added 5 drops of urine and 10 drops of water
D. If the color becomes orange or red, It is considered postitive

82. Which of the following nursing intervention is important for a client scheduled to have a Guaiac Test?

A. Avoid turnips, radish and horseradish 3 days before procedure
B. Continue iron preparation to prevent further loss of Iron
C. Do not eat read meat 12 hours before procedure
D. Encourage caffeine and dark colored foods to produce accurate results

83. In collecting a routine specimen for fecalysis, Which of the following, if done by a nurse, indicates inadequate knowledge and skills about the procedure?

A. The nurse scoop the specimen specifically at the site with blood and mucus
B. She took around 1 inch of specimen or a teaspoonful
C. Ask the client to call her for the specimen after the client wiped off his anus with a tissue
D. Ask the client to defecate in a bedpan, Secure a sterile container

84. In a routine sputum analysis, Which of the following indicates proper nursing action before sputum collection?

A. Secure a clean container
B. Discard the container if the outside becomes contaminated with the sputum
C. Rinse the client’s mouth with Listerine after collection
D. Tell the client that 4 tablespoon of sputum is needed for each specimen for a routine sputum analysis

85. Who collects Blood specimen?

A. The nurse
B. Medical technologist
C. Physician
D. Physical therapist

86. David, 68 year old male client is scheduled for Serum Lipid analysis. Which of the following health teaching is important to ensure accurate reading?

A. Tell the patient to eat fatty meals 3 days prior to the procedure
B. NPO for 12 hours pre procedure
C. Ask the client to drink 1 glass of water 1 hour prior to the procedure
D. Tell the client that the normal serum lipase level is 50 to 140 U/L

87. The primary factor responsible for body heat production is the

A. Metabolism
B. Release of thyroxin
;C. Muscle activity
D. Stress

88. The heat regulating center is found in the

A. Medulla oblongata
B. Thalamus
C. Hypothalamus
D. Pons

89. A process of heat loss which involves the transfer of heat from one surface to another is

A. Radiation
B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. Evaporation

90. Which of the following is a primary factor that affects the BP?

A. Obesity
B. Age
C. Stress
D. Gender

91. The following are social data about the client except

A. Patient’s lifestyle
B. Religious practices
C. Family home situation
D. Usual health status

92. The best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination is

A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Side lying
C. Supine
D. Lithotomy

93. Measure the leg circumference of a client with bipedal edema is best done in what position?

A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Sitting
C. Standing
D. Supine

94. In palpating the client’s abdomen, Which of the following is the best position for the client to assume?

A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Side lying
C. Supine
D. Lithotomy

95. Rectal examination is done with a client in what position?

A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Sims position
C. Supine
D. Lithotomy

96. Which of the following is a correct nursing action when collecting urine specimen from a client with an Indwelling catheter?

A. Collect urine specimen from the drainage bag
B. Detach catheter from the connecting tube and draw the specimen from the port
C. Use sterile syringe to aspirate urine specimen from the drainage port
D. Insert the syringe straight to the port to allow self sealing of the port

97. Which of the following is inappropriate in collecting mid stream clean catch urine specimen for urine analysis?

A. Collect early in the morning, First voided specimen
B. Do perineal care before specimen collection
C. Collect 5 to 10 ml for urine
D. Discard the first flow of the urine

98. When palpating the client’s neck for lymphadenopathy, where should the nurse position himself?

A. At the client’s back
B. At the client’s right side
C. At the client’s left side
D. In front of a sitting client

99. Which of the following is the best position for the client to assume if the back is to be examined by the nurse?

A. Standing
B. Sitting
C. Side lying
D. Prone

100. In assessing the client’s chest, which position best show chest expansion as well as its movements?

A. Sitting
B. Prone
C. Sidelying
D. Supine

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Fundamentals of Nursing Drill 3

1. Which of the following terms is used to describe rapid, jerky, involuntary, purposeless movements of the extremities?
a) Chorea
b) Bradykinesia
c) Dyskinesia
d) Spondylosis
2. Which of the phases of a migraine headache usually lasts less than an hour?
a) Aura
b) Prodrome
c) Headache
d) Recovery
3. The most common type of brain neoplasm is the
a) glioma.
b) angioma.
c) meningioma.
d) neuroma.
4. Which of the following diseases is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord?
a) Multiple sclerosis
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Huntington’s disease
d) Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s disease
5. Which of the following diseases is associated with decreased levels of dopamine due to destruction of pigmented neuronal cells in the substantia nigra in the basal ganglia of the brain?
a) Parkinson’s disease
b) In some patients, Parkinson’s disease can be controlled; however, it cannot be cured.
c) Multiple sclerosis
d) Huntington’s disease
e) Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s disease
6. Which of the following diseases is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dance-like movement and dementia?
a) Huntington’s disease
b) Multiple sclerosis
c) Parkinson’s disease
d) Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s disease
7. Which of the following diseases is a rare, transmissible, progressive fatal disease of the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain?
a) Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s disease
b) Multiple sclerosis
c) Parkinson’s disease
d) Huntington’s disease
8. Bell’s palsy is a disorder of which cranial nerve?
a) Facial (VII)
b) Trigeminal (V)
c) Vestibulocochlear (VIII)
d) Vagus (X)

9. The most common cause of acute encephalitis in the United States is
a) Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV).
b) Cryptococcus neoformans.
c) Western equine bacteria.
d) Candida albicans.
10. Which of the following reflects basic nursing measures in the care of the patient with viral encephalitis?
a) Providing comfort measures
b) Administering narcotic analgesics
c) Administering amphotericin B.
d) Monitoring cardiac output
11. Nursing management of the patient with new variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (nvCJD) includes
a) providing supportive care.
b) initiating isolation procedures.
c) preparing for organ donation.
d) administering amphotericin B.
12.Three medications referred to as the ‘ABC drugs’ are currently the main pharmacological therapy for multiple sclerosis. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included in patient teaching?
a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.
b) Take interferon beta-la (Avonex) with food or milk.
c) Take interferon beta-1b (Betaseron) at night before bedtime for best effects.
d) Take glatiramer acetate (Copaxone) on an empty stomach.
13. Korsakoff’s syndrome is characterized by
a) psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations.
b) severe dementia and myocLonus.
c) tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.
d) choreiform movement and dementia.
14. The primary North American vector transmitting arthropod-borne virus encephalitis is the
a) Mosquito
b) tick.
c) horse.
d) flea.
15. The initial symptoms of new variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (nvCJD) are
a) anxiety, depression, and behavioral changes.
b) memory and cognitive impairment.
b) Memory and cognitive impairment occur late in the course of nvCJD
c) diplopia and bradykinesia.
d) akathisia and dysphagia.
16. A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms
a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin.
b) indicate renal toxicity and a worsening of the patient’s condition.
c) are primarily associated with infection with Coccidioides immitis and Aspergillus.
d) ) indicate the need for immediate blood and cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) cultures.
17. The patient with Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) encephalitis is receiving acyclovir (Zovirax). The nurse monitors blood chemistry test results and urinary output for
a) renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.
b) signs and symptoms of cardiac insufficiency.
c) signs of relapse.
d) signs of improvement in the patient’s condition.
18. Medical management of arthropod-borne virus (arboviral) encephalitis is aimed at
a) controlling seizures and increased intracranical pressure.
b) preventing renal insufficiency.
c) maintaining hemodynamic stability and adequate cardiac output.
d) preventing muscular atrophy.
19. The patient receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone) for treatment of secondary progressive multiple sclerosis (MS) is closely monitored for
a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.
b) mood changes and fluid and electrolyte alterations.
c) renal insufficiency.
d) hypoxia.
20. What percentage of patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s are now estimated to have developed post-polio syndrome?
a) 60-80%
b) 50%
c) 25-30%
d) 10%
21. Which of the following statements describe the pathophysiology of post-polio syndrome?
a) The exact cause is unknown, but aging or muscle overuse is suspected.
b) The exact cause is unknown, but latent poliovirus is suspected.
c) Post-polio syndrome is caused by an autoimmune response.
d) Post-polio syndrome is caused by long-term intake of a low-protein, high-fat diet in polio survivors.
22. Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions of a patient with post-polio syndrome?
a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient.
b) Administering antiretroviral agents.
c) Planning activities for evening hours rather then morning hours.
d) Avoiding the use of heat applications in the treatment of muscle and joint pain.
23. Which of the following terms is used to describe edema of the optic nerve?
a) Papilledema
b) Scotoma
c) Lymphedema
d) Angioneurotic edema
24. Degenerative neurologic disorders include which of the following?
a) Huntington’s disease
b) Paget’s disease
c) Osteomyelitis
d) Glioma
25. Bone density testing in patients with post-polio syndrome has demonstrated
a) low bone mass and osteoporosis.
b) osteoarthritis.
c) calcification of long bones.
d) no significant findings.
26. Which of the following terms refers to mature compact bone structures that form concentric rings of bone matrix?
a) Lamellae
b) Endosteum
c) Trabecula
d) Cancellous bone
27. An osteon is defined as a
a) microscopic functional bone unit.
b) bone-forming cell.
c) bone resorption cell.
d) mature bone cell.
28. Which of the following terms refers to the shaft of the long bone?
a) Diaphysis
b) Epiphysis
c) Lordosis
d) Scoliosis
29. Paresthesia is the term used to refer to
a) abnormal sensations.
b) absence of muscle movement suggesting nerve damage.
c) involuntary twitch of muscle fibers.
d) absence of muscle tone.
30. Which of the following terms refers to a grating or crackling sound or sensation?
a) Crepitus
b) Callus
c) Clonus
d) Fasciculation
31. Which of the following terms refers to muscle tension being unchanged with muscle shortening and joint motion?
a) Isotonic contraction
b) Isometric contraction
c) Contracture
d) Fasciculation
32. During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur?
a) Reparative
b) Remodeling
c) Inflammation
d) Revascularization



33. During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement?
a) Remodeling
b) Inflammation
c) Revascularization
d) Reparative
34. Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to spread all fingers?
a) Ulnar
b) Peroneal
c) Radial
d) Median
35. Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes?
a) Peroneal
b) Radial
c) Median
d) Ulnar
36. Which of the following statements reflect the progress of bone healing?
a) Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing.
b) All fracture healing takes place at the same rate no matter the type of bone fractured.
c) The age of the patient influences the rate of fracture healing.
d) Adequate immobilization is essential until there is ultrasound evidence of bone formation with ossification.
37. Diminished range of motion, loss of flexibility, stiffness, and loss of height are history and physical findings associated with age-related changes of the
a) joints.
b) bones.
c) muscles.
d) ligaments.
38. Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the
a) external soft tissue.
b) cartilage.
c) bursae.
d) fascia.
39. Which of the following is an indicator of neurovascular compromise?
a) Capillary refill more than 3 seconds
b) Warm skin temperature
c) Diminished pain
d) Pain on active stretch.
40. Which of the following terms refers to moving away from midline?
a) Abduction
b) Adduction
c) Inversion
d) Eversion
41. Surgical fusion of a joint is termed
a) arthrodesis.
b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF).
c) heterotrophic ossification.
d) arthroplasty.
42. Which of the following devices is designed specifically to support and immobilize a body part in a desired position?
a) Splint
b) Brace
c) Continuous passive motion (CPM) device
d) Trapeze
43. When caring for the patient in traction, the nurse is guided by which of the following principles?
a) Skeletal traction is never interrupted.
b) Weights should rest on the bed.
c) Knots in the ropes should touch the pulley.
d) Weights are removed routinely.
44. Meniscectomy refers to the
a) replacement of one of the articular surfaces of a joint.
b) incision and diversion of the muscle fascia.
c) excision of damaged joint fibrocartilage.
d) removal of a body part.
45. In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines?
a) Never cross the affected leg when seated.
b) Keep the knees together at all times.
c) Avoid placing a pillow between the legs when sleeping.
d) Bend forward only when seated in a chair.
46. Injury to the ______ nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop.
a) Peroneal
b) Sciatic
c) Femoral
d) Achilles



47. The nurse teaching the patient with a cast about home care includes which of the following instructions?
a) Dry a wet fiberglass cast thoroughly using a hair dryer on a cool setting to avoid skin problems.
b) Cover the cast with plastic or rubber.
c) Keep the cast below heart level.
d) Fix a broken cast by applying tape.
48. A continuous passive motion (CPM) device applied after knee surgery
a) promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint.
b) provides active range of motion.
c) promotes healing by immobilizing the knee joint.
d) prevents infection and controls edema and bleeding.
49. Which of the following terms refers to disease of a nerve root?
a) Radiculopathy
b) Involucrum
c) Sequestrum
d) Contracture
50. Of the following common problems of the upper extremities, which results from entrapment of the median nerve at the wrist?
a) Carpal tunnel syndrome
b) Ganglion
c) Dupuytren’s contracture
d) Impingement syndrome
51. When the nurse notes that the patient’s left great toe deviates laterally, she recognizes that the patient has a
a) hallux valgus.
b) hammertoe.
c) pes cavus.
d) flatfoot.
52. Localized rapid bone turnover, most commonly affecting the skull, femur, tibia, pelvic bones, and vertebrae, characterizes which of the following bone disorders?
a) Osteitis deformans
b) Osteomalacia
c) Osteoporosis
d) Osteomyelitis
53. Most cases of osteomyelitis are caused by which of the following microorganisms?
a) Staphylococcus
b) Proteus species
c) Pseudomonas species
d) Escherichia coli
54. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included when teaching the patient about plantar fasciitis?
a) Management of plantar fasciitis includes stretching exercises.
b) Plantar fasciitis presents as an acute onset of pain localized to the ball of the foot that occurs when pressure is placed upon it and diminishes when pressure is released.
c) The pain of plantar fasciitis diminishes with warm water soaks.
d) Complications of plantar fasciitis include neuromuscular damage and decreased ankle range of motion.
55. Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include
a) lack of exposure to sunshine.
b) lack of aerobic exercise.
c) a low protein, high fat diet.
d) an estrogen deficiency or menopause.
56. The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements?
a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors.
b) Increase fiber in the diet.
c) Reduce stress.
d) Decrease the intake of vitamin A and D.
57. Instructions for the patient with low back pain include which of the following?
a) When lifting, avoid overreaching.
b) When lifting, place the load away from the body.
c) When lifting, use a narrow base of support.
d) When lifting, bend the knees and loosen the abdominal muscles.
58. Dupuytren’s contracture causes flexion of the
a) fourth and fifth fingers.
b) thumb.
c) index and middle fingers.
d) ring finger.
59. A metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of bone is
a) Osteomalacia
b) Osteoporosis
c) Osteomyelitis
d) Osteoarthritis
60. Which of the following terms refers to an injury to ligaments and other soft tissues of a joint?
a) Sprain
b) Dislocation
c) Subluxation
d) Strain
61. Which of the following terms refers to failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together?
a) Nonunion
b) ) Dislocation
c) Subluxation
d) Malunion
62. The Emergency Department nurse teaches patients with sports injuries to remember the acronym RICE, which stands for which of the following combinations of treatment?
a) Rest, ice, compression, elevation
b) Rest, ice, circulation, and examination
c) Rotation, immersion, compression and elevation
d) Rotation, ice, compression, and examination
63. The nurse anticipates that the physician will perform joint aspiration and wrapping with compression elastic dressing for which of the following musculoskeletal problems?
a) Joint effusion
b) Strain
c) Sprain
d) Avascular necrosis
64. When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which bone has splintered into several pieces, that fracture is described as
a) comminuted.
b) compound.
c) depressed.
d) impacted.
65. When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which the fragments of bone are driven inward, the fracture is described as
a) depressed.
b) compound.
c) comminuted.
d) impacted.
66. A fracture is termed pathologic when the fracture
a) occurs through an area of diseased bone.
b) results in a pulling away of a fragment of bone by a ligament or tendon and its
c) presents as one side of the bone being broken and the other side being bent.
d) involves damage to the skin or mucous membranes.
67. The most common complication after knee arthroscopy is
a) joint effusion
b) infection.
c) ) knee giving way.
d) knee locking.
68. When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse recognizes that the patient is likely demonstrating signs of
a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome.
b) avascular necrosis of bone.
c) a reaction to an internal fixation device.
d) heterotrophic ossification.
69. Which of the following terms refers to a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent?
a) Greenstick
b) Spiral
c) Avulsion
d) Oblique

70. The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects
a) fat embolism syndrome.
b) compartment syndrome.
c) hypovolemic shock.
d) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome.
71. A Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the
a) distal radius.
b) elbow.
c) humeral shaft.
d) clavicle.
72. With fractures of the femoral neck, the leg is
a) shortened, adducted, and externally rotated.
b) shortened, abducted, and internally rotated.
c) adducted and internally rotated.
d) abducted and externally rotated.
73. Which of the following terms most precisely refers to an infection acquired in the hospital that was not present or incubating at the time of hospital admission?
a) Nosocomial infection
b) Primary bloodstream infection
c) Secondary bloodstream infection
d) Emerging infectious diseases


74. The usual incubation period (infection to first symptom) for AIDS is
a) 10 years.
b) 3–6 months.
c) 1 year.
d) 5 years.
75. The usual incubation period (infection to first symptom) for hepatitis B is
a) 45-160 days.
b) 15-50 days.
c) 6-9 months.
d) unclear.
76. Which of the following terms refers to a state of microorganisms being present within a host without causing host interference or interaction?
a) Colonization
b) Susceptible
c) Immune
d) Infection
77. The nurse teaches the parent of the child with chickenpox that the child is no longer contagious to others when
a) the vesicles and pustules have crusted.
b) the first rash appears.
c) the fever disappears.
d) the rash is changing into vesicles, and pustules appear.


78. Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection?
There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection.
Patients are supported by fluid replacement, airway management, and standard nursing care support during the time that the patient has meningitis symptoms.
a) The incubation period is three to five days.
b) Patients with West Nile virus present with gastrointestinal complaints, such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain.
c) Transmission of West Nile virus occurs from human-to-human.
79. Prophylaxis antibiotic for anthrax is given to people with symptoms who have been in a defined “hot zone” for a period of
a) 60 days.
b) 30 days.
c) 14 days.
d) 10 days.
80. If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should
a) call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office.
b) immediately vaccinate the patient and anyone in contact with the patient.
c) establish isolation with positive pressure.
d) Assess the patient for signs of a rash similar to chickenpox in appearance and progression.



81. The six elements necessary for infection are a causative organism, a reservoir of available organisms, a portal or mode of exit from the reservoir, a mode of transmission from reservoir to host, a susceptible host, and a
a) mode of entry to host.
b) mode of exit from the host.
c) virulent host.
d) latent time period.
82. Which of the following statements reflect what is known about the Ebola and Marburg viruses?
a) The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa.
b) Treatment during the acute phase includes administration of acyclovir, and ventilator and dialysis support.
c) The viruses can be spread only by airborne exposure.
d) Symptoms include severe lower abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and dehydration.
83. Bubonic plague occurs
a) after the organism enters through the skin.
b) occurs after the organism is inhaled..
c) occurs when the organism causes a bloodstream infection.
d) after the organism is transferred by human to human contact.
84. The term given to the category of triage that refers to life-threatening or potentially life-threatening injury or illness requiring immediate treatment is
a) emergent.
b) urgent.
c) immediate.
d) non-acute.
85. When the patient has been field triaged and categorized as blue, the nurse recognizes that the patient requires
a) fast-track or psychological support.
b) emergent care.
c) immediate care.
d) urgent care.
86. Which of the following guidelines is appropriate to helping family members cope with sudden death?
a) Show acceptance of the body by touching it, giving the family permission to touch.
b) Inform the family that the patient has passed on.
c) Obtain orders for sedation for family members.
d) Provide details of the factors attendant to the sudden death.
87. Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient?
a) Lactated Ringer’s solution
b) Type O negative blood
b) Dextrose 5% in water
c) Hypertonic saline
88. Induction of vomiting is indicated for the accidental poisoning patient who has ingested
a) aspirin.
b) rust remover.
c) gasoline.
d) toilet bowl cleaner.
89. Which of the following phases of psychological reaction to rape is characterized by fear and flashbacks?
a) Heightening anxiety phase
b) Acute disorganization phase
c) Denial phase
d) Reorganization phase
90. When preparing for an emergency bioterroism drill, the nurse instructs the drill volunteers that each biological agents requires specific patient management and medications to combat the virus, bacteria, or toxin. Which of the following statements reflect the patient management of variola virus (small pox)?
a) Small pox spreads rapidly and requires immediate isolation.
b) Acyclovir is effective against smallpox.
c) Small pox is spread by inhalation of spores.
d) Vaccination is effective only if administered within 12 to 24 hours of exposure.
91. Which of the following statements reflect the nursing management of pulmonary anthrax (B. anthracis)?
a) Prophylaxis with fluoroquinone is suggested after exposure.
b) Airborne person-to-person transmission occurs.
c) Diagnosis is by pulmonary function testing and chest x-ray.
d) Pulmonary effects include respiratory failure, shock, and death within five to seven days after exposure.
92. Which of the following terms refers to injuries that occur when a person is caught between objects, run over by a moving vehicle, or compressed by machinery?
a) Crush injuries
b) Blunt trauma
c) Penetrating abdominal injuries
d) Intra-abdominal injuries
93. A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning
a) appears intoxicated.
b) presents with severe hypertension.
c) appears hyperactive.
d) will always present with a cherry red skin coloring.
94. Treatment of an acetaminophen overdose includes the administration of
a) N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
b) flumazenil (Romazicon).
c) naloxone (Narcan).
d) diazepam (Valium).
95. Which of the following statements reflect the nursing management of the patient with a white phosphorus chemical burn?
a) Do not apply water to the burn.
b) Immediately drench the skin with running water from a shower, hose or faucet.
c) Alternate applications of water and ice to the burn.
d) Wash off the chemical using warm water, then flush the skin with cool water.
96. During a disaster, the nurse sees a victim with a green triage tag. The nurse knows that the person has
a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.
b) injuries that are life-threatening but survivable with minimal intervention.
c) injuries that are significant and require medical care, but can wait hours without threat to life or limb.
d) indicates injuries that are extensive and chances of survival are unlikely even with definitive care.
97. If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure?
a) 48 to 72
b) 6 to 12
c) 12 to 24
d) 24 to 48
98. Which of the following refers to a management tool for organizing personnel, facilities, equipment, and communication for any emergency situation?
a) The Incident Command System
b) Office of Emergency Management
c) National Disaster Medical System
d) The Hospital Emergency Preparedness Plan
99. Which of the following terms refers to a process by which an individual receives education about recognition of stress reactions and management strategies for handling stress?
a) Defusing
b) Debriefing
c) Follow-up
d) Critical incident stress management
100. The first step in decontamination is
a) removal of the patient’s clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water.
b) a thorough soap and water wash and rinse of the patient.
c) to immediately apply personal protective equipment.
d) to immediately apply a chemical decontamination foam to the area of contamination.


Answers and Rationale

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